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Upcoming Bank Exams : 2012

2011-10-05T06:49:00.000-07:00

January
● Rajasthan Stenographer Competitive Exam., 2011 (January)
● RPSC Accountant and Junior Accountant Combined Competitive Exam., 2011 (January)
● Bihar Staff Selection Commission Graduate Level First Elementary Combined Competitive Exam., 2010 (January)
● Chhattisgarh Gramin Bank Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Exam. (January 15)
● Andhra Pragathi Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (January 15)
● Bihar Kshetriya Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (January 15)
● Chhattisgarh Gramin Bank Office Scale I, II and III Exam. (January 22)
● M.P. Samvida Shala Techer Eligibility Test, 2011 for Category-3 (January 22)
● Rajasthan Gramin Bank Office Middle Management (Scale II) and Officer Junior Management (Scale-I) Exam. (January 22)
● SSC Food Corporation of India Assistant Grade II and Typist Exam., 2012 (January 22)
● Syndicate Bank Agricultural Assistant in Clerical Cadre Exam., 2011-12
● Rajasthan Gramin Bank Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Exam. (January 29)
● Rewa Sidhi Gramin Bank Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Exam. (January 29)
● U.P.S.C. Special Class Railway Apprentices Exam., 2012 (January 29)
● Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) Jan 2012 (January 29)
● South Indian Bank Clerk Exam. (January 29)

February
● SSC Food Corporation of India Assistant Grade III Exam., 2012 (February 4-5)
● Rewa Sidhi Gramin Bank Office Scale I, II and III Exam. (February 5)
● Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Entrance Exam. (Class VI) (February 12)
● Jaipur Thar Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (February 12)
● Combined Defence Services Exam. (I), 2012 (February 12)
● Uttaranchal Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (February 12)
● Madhya Pradesh Police Constable Recruitment Exam. (February 12)
● Karnataka Bank P.O. Exam. (February 12) (Online Closing Date : 13 January, 2012)
● Jaipur Thar Gramin Bank Officer Scale I, II and III Exam. (February 19) (Online Closing Date : 10 January, 2012)
● Uttaranchal Gramin Bank Officer Scale-I Exam. (February 19)
● Jharkhand Gramin Bank Officer Scale I, II and III Exam. (February 19)
● Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Post Graduate Teachers Recruitment Exam. (February 19) (Online Closing Date : 13 January, 2012)
● Madhya Pradesh High Court Assistant Grade 3 Exam. (February 19) (Closing Date : 23 January, 2012)
● Surguja Kshetriya Gramin Bank Scale I Officer Exam. (February 19) (Online Closing Date : 19 January, 2012)
● Chartered Accountants and Specialist Officers Recruitament Exam. (February 19) (Online Closing Date : 16 January, 2012)
● Army Religious Teacher Exam (February 26)
● Madhya Pradesh Assistant Grade 3/Lower Division Clerk/Registration Clerk Combined Selection Exam., 2011 (February 26) (Online Closing Date : 18 January, 2012)

March
● Jharkhand Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (March 4)
● Madhya Pradesh Excellence School Entrance Test for Class IX (March 4)
● Surguja Kshetriya Gramin Bank Clerk-cum-Cashier (Office-Assistant) Exam. (March 4) (Online Closing Date : 19 January, 2012)
● Common Written Exam. (CWE) for Specialist Officers (March 11) (Online Closing Date : 21 January, 2012)
● State Bank of India Clerical Cadre Exam. for SC/ST/OBC (March 18) (Online Closing Date : 20 January, 2012)

April
● SSC Junior Engineer (Civil & Electrical) Exam., 2012 (April 8) (Closing Date : 10 February, 2012)
● Chhattisgarh Subedar/Sub-Inspector Cadre/Platoon Commander Pre. Exam., 2011 (April 8) (Closing Date : 20 January, 2012)
● Uttar Pradesh B. Ed. Joint Entrance Exam., 2012-13 (April 21) (Closing Date : 10 March, 2012)
● Recruitment of Constables (GD) and Riflemen (GD) in CAPFs 2012 (BSF/CRPF/CISF/SSB/ITBPF/Assam Rifles) (April 22)
● All India Engineering/Architecture Entrance Exam., 2012 (April 29)

May
● Chhattisgarh Public Service Commission State Services Exam., 2011 (May 6) (Online Closing Date : 9 February, 2012)
● Chhattisgarh Subedar/Sub-Inspector/Platoon Commander Main Exam., 2011 (May 13-14)
● SSC Sub-Inspector in CPOs and Intelligence Officer in NCB Exam., 2012 (May 27) (Closing Date : 16 March, 2012)
● SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-I) Exam., 2012 (July 1&8) (Closing Date : 20 April, 2012)
● SSC Stenographers Grade 'C' & 'D' Exam., 2012 (July 29) (Closing Date : 25 May, 2012)

September
● SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-II) Exam., 2012 (September 15-16)

October
● SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) for Data Entry Oerator LDC etc. Exam., 2012 (October 21) (Closing Date : 10 August, 2012)

November
● SSC Junior Translators (CSOLS)/Junior Hindi Translator Exam., 2012 (November 18) (Closing Date : 5 October, 2012)

Syndicate Bank P.O. Exam, 2010 : General Awareness Fully Solved

2010-11-08T08:57:00.000-08:00

Syndicate Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 2010
(Held on 29-8-2010)
General Awareness : Solved Paper

1. Mr. Mukul A. Sangma has taken over as the—
(A) Chief Minister of Manipur
(B) Chief Minister of Meghalaya
(C) Governor of Meghalaya
(D) Governor of Tripura
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

2. As per the reports published in various newspapers Core Sector Industries recorded a 7•2 per cent growth in March 2010. The growth of which of the following industries will not be considered in these figures ?
(A) Coal
(B) Steel
(C) Cement
(D) Power
(E) Banking
Ans : (E)

3. How much amount was earmarked in the Union Budget 2010-11 for infusion in the capital of the public sector banks during the year ?
(A) Rs. 5,000 crores
(B) Rs. 7,500 crores
(C) Rs. 10,000 crores
(D) Rs. 15,000 crores
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

4. India recently signed a pact with which of the following SAARC countries which will enable its Prime Minister to have direct communication with the Prime Minister of that country on Hot Line ?
(A) Myanmar
(B) Nepal
(C) Pakistan
(D) China
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

5. As per the report released by the Govt. of India, various Govt. agencies procured about 15 million tonnes of wheat during the recent Rabi season. Which of the following states was the largest contributor to this stock of 15 million tonnes ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Kerala
(C) Punjab
(D) Tamil Nadu
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

6. As we know the members of the European Union have recently decided to start functioning with a new set of rules and regulations. The newly devised rules are commonly known as—
(A) Treaty of London
(B) Treaty of Lisbon
(C) Paris Treaty
(D) Treaty of Moscow
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

7. As per the estimates given by various organizations/agencies China is expected to reach a new economic target during 2010 by becoming world’s second largest Economy. This means China will replace—
(A) France
(B) Germany
(C) Japan
(D) Russia
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the ‘Dadasaheb Phalke Award-2010’ ?
(A) Javed Akhtar
(B) Amitabh Bachchan
(C) Gulzar
(D) Dev Anand
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

9. “POSCO to invest Rs. 1000 crores more in Maharashtra” was a headline in major financial newspapers recently. POSCO is associated with which of the following businesses as its core business in Maharashtra ?
(A) Fertilizers
(B) Steel
(C) Paper and News print
(D) Automobiles
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

10. As per the reports published in various newspapers, “Mineral Output from mining and quarrying sector was up by 11% in April 2010.” Production of which of the following cannot be included in above figures ?
(A) Coal
(B) Petroleum
(C) Iron Ore
(D) Natural Gas
(E) Cement
Ans : (E)

11. ‘General Motors’ plans to go public in next two months, was a news in major financial newspapers. This means General Motors is planning to do which of the following ?
1. Wind up its business in next two months.
2. Float Initial Public Offer (IPO) in near future.
3. Launch a big sales and marketing drive to attract people from all walks of life.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

12. Who amongst the following won the Barcelona Open Lawn Tennis Tournament (men’s singles) held in April 2010 ?
(A) Fernando Verdasco
(B) Robin Soderling
(C) Deniel Nestor
(D) Nenad Zimonjic
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

13. Which of the following is the full form of the abbreviation ‘IFRS’ as used in corporate/ finance sector ?
(A) Indian Financial Reconciliation Standards
(B) Interpretation and Formal Reporting System
(C) International Financial Reporting Standards
(D) International Financial Reporting System
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

14. Mallika Bhandarkar, who won a ‘Gold Medal’ in an international event recently is a—
(A) Badminton Player
(B) Table Tennis Player
(C) Lawn Tennis Player
(D) Golf Player
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

15. Who amongst the following appoints the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission, India ?
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister of India
(C) The Chief Justice of India
(D) The Lok Sabha
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

16. Justice D. K. Jain of the Supreme Court of India recently inaugurated the first Rural Court in Shahabad Town of the state. Shahabad is in which of the following states ?
(A) Orissa
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Haryana
(E) Gujarat
Ans : (D)

17. Which of the following states in India recently decided to establish one Health Care Centre for every 50000 people ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) West Bengal
(D) Kerala
(E) Delhi
Ans : (E)

18. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) had a dispute with which of the following agencies/organizations over the regulation of ‘ULIPs’ ?
(A) CIBIL
(B) AMFI
(C) CII
(D) WTO
(E) SEBI
Ans : (E)

19. Who amongst the following is the head of the panel set up by the Planning Commission of India to recommend measures for “Efficient Management of Public Expenditure” ?
(A) Dr. C. Rangarajan
(B) Dr. D. Subbarao
(C) Mr. C. B. Bhave
(D) Dr. Subir Gokarn
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. During the SAARC Summit at Thimpu, India announced that it will provide 50 SAARC scholarships to meritorious students from those LDCs who are member of SAARC. What is the full form of LDC ?
(A) Large Developed Country
(B) Least Diplomatic Country
(C) Least Developed Country
(D) Low Diplomatic Country
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

21. As we all know Child labour is totally banned in India. As per the “Child Labour Prohibition & Regulation Act”. ‘Child’ means a person who has not completed—
(A) 18 years of his/her age
(B) 16 years of his/her age
(C) 14 years of his/her age
(D) 20 years of his/her age
(E) 21 years of his/her age
Ans : (C)

22. The Women’s Reservation Bill was passed by the Rajya Sabha on which of the following dates ?
(A) 19th July, 2010
(B) 19th March, 2010
(C) 9th July, 2010
(D) 9th March, 2010
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

23. As we know the Jammu & Kashmir Assembly recently passed a bill which enabled it to ban Inter District Recruitments in the state. As per the provision of the bill a youth can now apply for a Govt. Job in the state only in—
(A) His/her district
(B) The districts of his/her commissionary
(C) Only one district of his/her choice in the state
(D) The district where he/she is residing at present
(E) A District in Jammu region only
Ans : (C)

24. As we know a servere earthquake had rocked Qinghai region recently. ‘Qinghai’ is in which of the following countries ?
(A) North Korea
(B) South Korea
(C) Myanmar
(D) China
(E) Vietnam
Ans : (D)

25. The second Summit of BRIC nations was organized in April 2010 in—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Moscow
(C) Brasilia
(D) Beijing
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

26. Which of the following states has decided to impose a cess on commercial vehicles so that a welfare fund can be created for the transport workers in distress of the state ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) West Bengal
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Kerala
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. Which of the following organization recently celebrated Silver Jubilee Year (25th Year) of its establishment ?
(A) ASEAN
(B) G-20
(C) Commonwealth
(D) NATO
(E) SAARC
Ans : (E)

28. Amnesty International is associated closely with which of the following ?
(A) To promote inclusive growth worldwide
(B) To make earth a better abode for future generations
(C) To protect human rights
(D) To protect the world from the dangers of any nuclear war
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

29. As per the new guidelines issued by SEBI, companies are required to list shares within how many days of the closure of the Initial Public Offers (IPOs) ?
(A) 30 days
(B) 25 days
(C) 20 days
(D) 12 days
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

30. As reported in some major newspapers some State Governments are planning to install Desalination Plants in some coastal zones in their states. What is the purpose of installing these Desalination plants ?
1. To generate power from sea water.
2. To convert sea water into normal water.
3. To keep the coastal areas pollution free and save marine population.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

31. The Workers under the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are encouraged to take their wages through bank and post office accounts. This step of the Govt. is to obtain which of the following goal(s) ?
1. Promote Banks’ business.
2. To minimise corrupt practices.
3. To encourage more and more people to join NREGA.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 2
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 2 and 1
Ans : (B)

32. Which of the following Rates/Ratios is not covered under the Monetary and Credit Policy of the RBI ?
(A) Bank Rate
(B) Repo Rate
(C) Cash Reserve Ratio
(D) Reverse Repo Rate
(E) Exchange Rate of Foreign Currencies
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following ministries has launched Integrated Wastelands Development Programme (IWDP) ?
(A) Ministry of Rural Development
(B) Ministry of Agriculture
(C) Ministry of Chemical and Fertilizers
(D) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. Which of the following is/are the specific goal(s) of Bharat Nirman Project launched by the Govt. of India ?
1. To provide more and more employment opportunities to rural youth.
2. To Develop infrastructure in rural areas.
3. To provide best technical education to Indian Youth.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) Only 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (D)

35. As we know Govt. of India has launched specific programmes to protect people from contaminated drinking water. Normally the ground water available in most of the rural areas, contains which of the following chemicals /minerals which makes it unsafe for drinking ?
1. Arsenic
2. Fluoride
3. Oxygen
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (C)

36. Which of the following is the goal of the Indira Aawas Yojana of the Govt. of India ?
1. To provide dwelling units to people living Below Poverty Line (BPL).
2. To make metro cities slum free.
3. To provide housing facilities to the Central Govt. Employees.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

37. Recently an Economic & Social Survey for Asian and Pacific Region was conducted by a UN agency. The survey finds that two economies of the region are developing very fast and are at the leading positions. One of them is China. Which is the another one ?
(A) Australia
(B) Bangladesh
(C) South Korea
(D) India
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

38. As per the reports in various newspapers the Tea Board will take up rehabilitation of about 10000 hectares of tea plantation in Himachal Pradesh. Which of the following is the main area of the state where tea is grown prominently ?
(A) Kangra
(B) Shimla
(C) Bilaspur
(D) Mandi
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Solo’ which got Commonwealth Writers’ Prize 2010 ?
(A) Shobha De
(B) Chetan Bhagat
(C) Anita Desai
(D) Rana Dasgupta
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

40. As per the reports published in various newspapers Karnataka Govt. has raised some objection on the Hogenakkal Drinking Water Project. The project is being implemented by which of the following states ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Maharashtra
(E) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (E)

41. As per newspaper reports Iran recently organized a Trilateral Meet to discuss its ‘Nuclear Policy’. Who were the two other members at the meet ?
(A) Turkey & USA
(B) Brazil & Russia
(C) UAE & Turkey
(D) USA & Britain
(E) Brazil & Turkey
Ans : (A)

42. The ‘Wall Street Reforms Bill’ was in news recently. The bill will initiate financial reforms in which of the following countries ?
(A) USA
(B) France
(C) Australia
(D) Brazil
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

43. As per the reports in various newspapers the Bank of Rajasthan is now merged with which of the following banks ?
(A) AXIS Bank
(B) IDBI Bank
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) HDFC Bank
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

44. Various countries recently signed an agreement on sharing of Nile water between them. Which of the following cannot be a member of this forum as Nile river does not pass through it ?
(A) Tanzania
(B) Kenya
(C) Egypt
(D) Iraq
(E) Sudan
Ans : (D)

45. Which of the following is the full form of ‘SOFA’ a term used frequently in international politics ?
(A) Status of Forces Agreement
(B) Statement of Foreign Agreements
(C) Strategic & Formal Alliances
(D) Soviet Forum of Allied forces
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

46. Which of the following is the body/agency set up by the Govt. of India to increase the flow of foreign investment in the country ?
(A) FIPB
(B) FEMA
(C) NSDL
(D) FCCB
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

47. The World ‘No Tobacco Day’ is observed on which of the following days ?
(A) 13th May
(B) 31st May
(C) 13th June
(D) 30th June
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

48. Who amongst the following is adjudged the Footballer of the Year selected by Football Writers Association (FWA) ?
(A) Francesco Totti
(B) Rio Ferdinand
(C) Pele
(D) Diego Maradona
(E) Wayne Rooney
Ans : (E)

49. Which of the following is not a Civilian Award given by the Govt. of India ?
(A) Sahitya Academy Award
(B) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
(C) Padma Shri
(D) Bharat Ratna
(E) Kirti Chakra
Ans : (A)

50. Under the Annapurna Scheme how much foodgrain is provided to an eligible person every month ?
(A) 5 kg
(B) 10 kg
(C) 15 kg
(D) 20 kg
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

SBI Clerk Interview April/May Result 2010

2010-09-29T20:43:00.000-07:00

SBI Clerk Interview Result 2010 | SBI Clerk Interview April/May 2010 Result | SBI Clerk Final Result 2010 | SBI Clerical Final Selected Candidates List | www.sbi.co.in

Recruitment of Clerical Staff in SBI (Advertisement No CRPD/CR/2009-10/04) WRITTEN TEST HELD ON 08TH , 15TH & 22ND NOVEMBER 2009

State Bank of india Published Clerk Recruitment interview result held in april/may 2010

Check Here To SBI Clerk Interview Result April/May 2010

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if any problem visit : http://www.sbi.co.in/user.htm?action=sbiClericalStaffResult

Syndicate Bank Probationary Clerk Exam., 27-6-2010 (Second Shift) Solved Paper

2010-09-17T17:48:00.001-07:00

Syndicate Bank Probationary Clerk Exam., 2010
(Held on 27-6-2010) (Second Shift)
English Language : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1-15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

A sobbing little girl stood near a small school from which she had been turned away because it ‘was too crowded’. “I can’t go to School,” she sobbed to a priest as he walked by Seeing her shabby, unkempt appearance, the priest guessed the reason and taking her by the hand, took her inside and found a place for her in the school class. The child was so touched that she went to bed that night thinking of the children who have no place to study.

Some two years later, this child lay dead in one of the poor tenement buildings and the parents called for the kindhearted priest, who had befriended their daughter, to handle the final arrangements. As her poor little body was being moved, a worm and crumpled purse was found which seemed to have been rummaged from some trash dump. Inside were founded 57 cents and a note scribbled in childish handwriting which read, “This is to help make the little school bigger so more children can go to school.”

For two years she had saved for this offering of love. When the priest tearfully read that note, he knew instantly what he would do.

Carrying this note and the cracked, red pocketbook to the stage, he told the story of her unselfish love and devotion. He challenged his assistants to get busy and raise enough money for the larger building.

A newspaper learned of the story and published it. It was read by a realtor who offered them a parcel of land worth many thousands. When told that the school could not pay so much, he offered it for a 57 cent payment.

Religious members too made large subscriptions. Cheques came from far and wide. Within five years the little girl’s gift had increased to $250,000 – a huge sum for that time. Her unselfish love had paid large dividends. The school building houses hundreds of scholars, so that no child in the area will ever need to be left outside at school time.

In one of the rooms of this building may be seen the picture of the sweet face of the little girl whose 57 cents, so sacrificially saved, made such remarkable history. Alongside of it is a portait of her kind priest.

1. How did the little girl die ?
(A) She had died from suffocation in the tenement building
(B) She had starved to death
(C) She fell from a poor tenement building
(D) Not mentioned in the passage
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. What was found on the girl’s body after her death ?
(A) A purse containing the drawing of a school
(B) Notes that she had taken during school
(C) A note to the priest thanking him for his kindness
(D) A purse containing the address to her new school
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

3. In what manner did the realtor help in making the little girl’s dream come true ?
(A) By buying a land for the building of the school for thousands of dollars
(B) By building the school himself
(C) By giving away land for building the school at a negligible price
(D) By publishing the girl’s story in the newspaper
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

4. What was the real reason behind the girl not being allowed into the school ?
(A) The girl had a learning disability
(B) She was poor and inappropriately dressed
(C) The teachers were too busy to teach her
(D) The school was full of good students and did not need one more
(E) The other kids in the school did not like her
Ans : (B)

5. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the passage/story ?
(A) The Girl with the 57 cents
(B) The Making of Any School
(C) A Realtor’s Sacrifice
(D) How Newspapers spread Information
(E) A Priest and His Religion
Ans : (A)

6. Which of the following characteristics can be attributed to the little girl from the story ?
(1) She was brave
(2) She was selfish
(3) She was loving
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (1) and (3)
(C) All (1), (2) and (3)
(D) Only (3)
(E) Only (2) and (3)
Ans : (D)

7. Which of the following cannot be said about the priest ?
(1) He was insensitive
(2) He put his thoughts into action
(3) He was compassionate
(A) Only (2)
(B) Only (3)
(C) Only (1)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) Only (1) and (3)
Ans : (C)

8. What was the little girl’s idea behind wanting to build a bigger school ?
(A) The current school was not providing quality education
(B) More students could study in the school
(C) To gain popularity
(D) Not mentioned in the passage
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. How was the priest instrumental in fulfilling the little girl’s dream ?
(A) He shared her story and urged his helpers to raise money
(B) He constructed the school building with the help of his assistants
(C) He handed over the 57 cents to the realtor himself
(D) He helped in the cremation of the little girl’s body
(E) He informed the newspaper of the little girl’s plight
Ans : (A)

10. What was the final outcome of the 57 cents saved by the little girl ?
(A) The 57 cents were taken by the priest as a fee for his service to the little girl
(B) Nothing could be done with the 57 cents as the amount was too small
(C) A home for the poor was built with the 57 cents
(D) The 57 cents increased to a sum of $2,50,000 and was donated to charity
(E) The amount grew manifold due to various contributions and a school housing hundreds was finally built
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 11-13) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. WORTH
(A) Costing
(B) Importance
(C) Significance
(D) Appeal
(E) Merit
Ans : (A)

12. TOUCHED
(A) Patted
(B) Tapped
(C) Felt
(D) Moved
(E) Called
Ans : (D)

13. UNKEMPT
(A) Untidy
(B) Tiny
(C) Torn
(D) Proper
(E) Worried
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 14-15) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. BEFRIENDED
(A) Recoiled
(B) Killed
(C) Accepted
(D) Mistrusted
(E) Ignored
Ans : (E)

15. KIND
(A) Unique
(B) Heartless
(C) Careless
(D) Common
(E) Loving
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 16-20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. As Anuj was familiar with the road to Neeraj’s house, he lead the way.
(A) Led the way
(B) Led away
(C) Leading ways
(D) Lead ways
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

17. Although he was new to the field of painting, Sharad give it a go.
(A) Gave goes
(B) Gives his go
(C) Gave it a go
(D) Giving it goes
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

18. The performance of the band on New Year’s Eve was out of worlds.
(A) Out of the worldly
(B) Outing of worlds
(C) Out from the world
(D) Out of the world
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

19. Parents are changing with the times and are friendlier and more open to their children’s views.
(A) Changed timings
(B) Changed to the time
(C) Changing times
(D) Change with time
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

20. Many people do not like to switch at one brand to another.
(A) Switched in
(B) Switches at
(C) Switch from
(D) Switching on
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 21-25) In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. Beside (A) the duties of compassion, (B) harmlessness (C) and forgiveness (D) there are still duties that we owe to others. All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

22. There was once a Brahmana who had made a vow (A) that he would only eat food that he could (B) gather (C) in the feilds (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

23. By far the most urgent (A) need of industry in journal (B) and of IT industry in particular (C) is the need for skilled (D) manpower. All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

24. The King gave away (A) all that he had, and he and his family (B) went without food so that they might (C) feed the hungry. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

25. We must feal (A) love for all, no matter (B) whether (C) they are of our own family or strangers (D) or whether they are rich or poor. All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26-30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) When my schoolmates asked, “What happened to your lip ?” I’d tell them that I’d fallen as a baby and cut it on a piece of glass.
(2) At a very young age, I knew I was different and I hated it.
(3) They saw me as a little girl with a broken lip, crooked nose, lopsided teeth, and hollow and somewhat slurred speech.
(4) Somehow it seemed more acceptable to have suffered an accident than to have been born different.
(5) Besides this physical appearance, I couldn’t even blow up a balloon without holding my nose, and when I bent to drink from a fountain, the water spilled out of my nose.
(6) This was because I was born with a cleft palate, and when I started to go to school, my classmates, who were constantly teasing, made it clear to me how I must look to others.

26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (B)

27. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (C)

28. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 3
(E) 2
Ans : (C)

29. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

30. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 31-40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. As the minister was (A) / very intelligent and hard working, (B) / the King appointed him (C) / as his chief advisor. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

32. Humour is a better way (A) / to provide social commentary on (B) / controversy issues and some movies (C) / do that successfully. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

33. The comedian enthralled (A) / everybody with his quick witty as (B) / he had chosen just the right topic (C) / to warm up to the crow. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

34. The superstar reveal that (A) / he had been turning (B) / the controversial security measures into (C) / a public relations opportunity. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

35. An old tiger living in (A) / the forest was not strong enough (B) / to hunt animals and starved (C) / for much days. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

36. My singing style was unique, (A) / but it would have been nothing (B) / without the contribution of (C) / the brilliant music directors. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

37. The body was almost (A) / asleep when a ball (B) / flies across the garden (C) / and hit him on the foot. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

38. At last Amar found (A) / Naresh under the shade (B) / of a tree and brought him (C) / back on the city. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

39. Mother sat through her chair (A) / by the fire to read her book, (B) / but her ten little boys were (C) / too noisy. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

40. Since the lion was (A) / very illness, all the other animals (B) / in the forest gave the lion (C) / a lot of medicines. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 41-50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

A poor washerman had an old donkey. He did not give it …(41)… food. The donkey became thin and …(42)…. The washerman had a wife and seven children. He said, “I am working hard. But I am not …(43)… a lot of money. I can’t feed my wife and children …(44)… How can I feed this donkey ? “Suddenly he remembered a tiger-skin in the house. It was a gift to his father’s good work. He thought, “I shall …(45)… the donkey with the skin and drive it into the field and won’t go near it. My donkey can eat a lot and …(46)… fat too.” The next day he dressed the donkey in the tiger-skin and drove it into the field of crops. The villagers saw the donkey in the tiger-skin and thought, ‘The tiger will kill us all. We shall write to the Collector and he will …(47)… it with the help of the police. Many days …(48)… The donkey ate a lot of crops everyday and grew stout and strong. One day the villagers …(49)… a letter from the Collector saying, “There is no tiger in your village or in any place near your village.” That evening all the villagers went to the field with big …(50)…. The washerman’s donkey in the tiger-skin was in the field. Suddenly another donkey brayed from some place near the field. The washerman’s donkey lifted up his head and brayed too. The villagers saw this and beat the donkey.

41. (A) any
(B) too
(C) many
(D) with
(E) the
Ans : (A)

42. (A) sorry
(B) died
(C) fat
(D) healthy
(E) weak
Ans : (E)

43. (A) accumulate
(B) spend
(C) wasting
(D) earning
(E) watching
Ans : (D)

44. (A) good
(B) main
(C) well
(D) two
(E) small
Ans : (C)

45. (A) sew
(B) wrapped
(C) enclose
(D) stuck
(E) cover
Ans : (E)

46. (A) see
(B) grow
(C) became
(D) demand
(E) carry
Ans : (B)

47. (A) shoot
(B) stroke
(C) shooed
(D) ask
(E) feed
Ans : (A)

48. (A) elapse
(B) went
(C) late
(D) passed
(E) going
Ans : (D)

49. (A) granted
(B) tore
(C) received
(D) shred
(E) get
Ans : (C)

50. (A) scare
(B) sticks
(C) bowl
(D) relieved
(E) fruits
Ans : (B)

MCQ on India's Economy with Answers 2010

2010-09-15T19:03:00.000-07:00

1. Movement along the same demand curve is known as—
(A) Extension and contraction of demand
(B) Increase and decrease of demand
(C) Contraction of supply
(D) Increase of supply
See Answer:

2. Which is a credit rating agency in India ?
(A) CRISIL
(B) ICRA
(C) CARE
(D) All of the above
See Answer:

3. A tax is characterised by horizontal equity if its liability is—
(A) Proportional to the income of tax payers
(B) Similar for tax payers in similar circumstances
(C) Proportional to the expenditure of tax payers
(D) The same for every tax payer
See Answer:

4. What does a leasing company provide ?
(A) Machinery and capital equipment on hire
(B) Legal guidance in establishing an enterprise
(C) Office accommodation on hire
(D) Technical consultancy and experts for a fee
See Answer:

5. When too much money is chasing too few goods, the situation is—
(A) Deflation
(B) Inflation
(C) Recession
(D) Stagflation
See Answer:

6. When there is a change in demand leading to a shift of the Demand Curve to the right, at the same price as before, the quantity demanded will—
(A) Decrease
(B) Increase
(C) Remain the same
(D) Fluctuate
See Answer:

7. The income elasticity of demand being greater than one, the commodity must be—
(A) A necessity
(B) A luxury
(C) An inferior goods
(D) A Giffin goods
See Answer:

8. 'Marginal efficiency of capital' is—
(A) The expected rate of return on new investment
(B) The expected rate of return on existing investment
(C) The difference between the rate of profit and the rate of interest
(D) The value of output per unit of capital invested
See Answer:

9. National Development Council (NDC) was constituted in—
(A) 1947
(B) 1950
(C) 1952
(D) 1951
See Answer:

10. The major aim of devalution is to—
(A) Encourage imports
(B) Encourage exports
(C) Encourage both exports and imports
(D) Discourage both exports and imports
See Answer:

11. Which among the following markets deals with the government securities ?
(A) Primary market
(B) Gilts market
(C) Foreign exchange market
(D) Secondary market
See Answer:

12. Structural unemployment arises due to—
(A) Deflationary conditions
(B) Heavy industry bias
(C) Shortage of raw materials
(D) Inadequate productive capacity
See Answer:

13. Which states have not yet established Regional Rural Banks ?
(A) Sikkim and Goa
(B) Bihar and Rajasthan
(C) Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Nagaland and Manipur
See Answer:

14. What is the name of MTNL's cellular service?
(A) Connect next
(B) Dolphin
(C) Tnex
(D) BSNL
See Answer:

15. ‘Open Market Operations’ is a part of—
(A) Income Policy
(B) Fiscal Policy
(C) Labour Policy
(D) Credit Policy
See Answer:

16. When is the budget traditionally submitted ?
(A) Last working day of the month of February
(B) First day of the month of March
(C) Last week of February
(D) Last week of March
See Answer:

17. Countries known as ‘The Four Pacific Tiger Economies’ are—
(A) Japan, Indonesia, Singapore and Hongkong
(B) China, Japan, Hongkong and Singapore
(C) Singapore, Taiwan, Hongkong and South Korea
(D) Indonesia, Philippines, North Korea and Japan
See Answer:

18. Which U.S. rice growing company was granted the patent of Indian Basmati ?
(A) Kasmati
(B) Tex Rice
(C) Rice Tec
(D) Texmati
See Answer:

19. Net growth-rate of population is determined by—
(A) Gross reproduction rate
(B) The birth-rate & the death-rate
(C) The pressure of population
(D) The birth-rate in a country
See Answer:

20. A closed economy is one which—
(A) Does not trade with other country
(B) Does not possess any means of international transport
(C) Does not share coastal line
(D) Is not a member of the U.N.O.
See Answer:

Indian Economy Questions

2010-09-15T19:01:00.000-07:00

1. According to the quantity theory of money, the quantity of money determines the—
(A) Interest rate
(B) Level of real output
(C) Price level
(D) Level of employment
See Answer:

2. A company is said to be ‘Sick’ when the accumulated loss at the end of any financial year leads to erosion of …… per cent of its net worth.
(A) 100%
(B) 75%
(C) 50%
(D) 25%
See Answer:

3. The abbreviation TRP denotes—
(A) Technical Research Project
(B) Trade Related Procedures
(C) Tax Related Protocols
(D) Television Rating Point
See Answer:

4. Who is called the Father of Economics ?
(A) J.M. Keynes
(B) Malthus
(C) Ricardo
(D) Adam Smith
See Answer:

5. The term ‘market’ in Economics means—
(A) A central place of Exchange
(B) Presence of competition
(C) Place where goods are stored
(D) Shops and super bazars
See Answer:

6. Commercial banking system in India is—
(A) Mixed banking
(B) Unit banking
(C) Branch banking
(D) None of the above
See Answer:

7. The gilt edged market in the capital market of India refers to—
(A) Long term private securities
(B) Market dealing in existing securities
(C) Market for corporate securities
(D) Market for government securities
See Answer:

8. Which of the following yields the largest revenue to the Government of India ?
(A) Sales tax
(B) Corporation tax
(C) Income tax
(D) Excise duty
See Answer:

9. Credit control operation in India is performed by—
(A) Rural Banks
(B) Commercial Banks
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) State Bank of India
See Answer:

10. Division of labour is limited by—
(A) The number of workers
(B) Hours of work
(C) Extent of the market
(D) Working space
See Answer:

11. The number of major ports in India is—
(A) 13
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 15
See Answer:

12. Who among the following is the Chairman of the National Disaster Management Authority?
(A) Finance Minister of India
(B) Union Minister for Planning
(C) Prime Minister
(D) The Union Home Minister
See Answer:

13. Which one of the following is the most sensitive indicator of the health of a Community ?
(A) Birth-rate
(B) Infant mortality-rate
(C) Death-rate
(D) Maternal mortality-rate
See Answer:

14. Commercial Banks in India were nationalised for the first time in the year—
(A) 1950
(B) 1960
(C) 1969
(D) 1979
See Answer:

15. The objectives of Indian Planning are—
(A) Increasing national income and employment
(B) Reducing inequalities in income and wealth
(C) Elimination of poverty and inequalities
(D) All of the above
See Answer:

16. The Gandhian economy was based on the principle of—
(A) State control
(B) Competition
(C) Trusteeship
(D) Rural co-operation
See Answer:

17. Fiscal policy is concerned with—
(A) Public revenue
(B) Public expenditure and debt
(C) Bank rate policy
(D) Both (A) and (B)
See Answer:

18. The theory of distribution relates to which of the following ?
(A) The distribution of assets
(B) The distribution of income among various items of expenditure
(C) The distribution of factor payments
(D) Equility in the distribution of income and wealth
See Answer:

19. If an industry is characterised by economies of scale then—
(A) Barriers to entry are not very large
(B) Long run unit costs of production decreases as the quantity the firm produces increases
(C) Capital requirment are small due to the efficiency of the large scale operation
(D) The costs of entry into the market are likely to be substantial
See Answer:

20. Say's Law of Market holds that—
(A) Supply is not equal to demand
(B) Supply creates its own demand
(C) Demand creates its own supply
(D) Supply is greater than demand
See Answer:

Indian Economy Quiz

2010-09-15T18:59:00.000-07:00

1. The most appropriate measure of a country's economic growth is its—
(A) Gross Domestic Product
(B) Net Domestic Product
(C) Net National Product
(D) Per Capita Real Income
See Answer:

2. Which of the following is not included in infrastructure in India ?
(A) Education
(B) Insurance
(C) Energy
(D) Transport
See Answer:

3. What was the amount of foreign debt in India in March 2010 ?
(A) $ 205•980 billion
(B) $ 210•530 billion
(C) $ 222•610 billion
(D) $ 261•4 billion
See Answer:

4. Which of the following committees examined and suggested Financial sector reforms in India ?
(A) Abid Hussain Committee
(B) Bhagwati Committee
(C) Chelliah Committee
(D) Narasimham Committee
See Answer:

5. In 2010-11 Union budget the exemption limit of income percentage above Rs. 8 lakh is—
(A) 30 per cent
(B) 35 per cent
(C) 15 per cent
(D) 20 per cent
See Answer:

6. National Income in India is estimated by—
(A) CSO
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Indian Statistical Institute
See Answer:

7. Which of the following is a wrong match ?
(A) Santro — Korea
(B) Matiz — Taiwan
(C) Zen — Japan
(D) Maruti — India
See Answer:

8. Which of the following is a Direct tax ?
(A) Entertainment Tax
(B) Estate duty
(C) Excise duty
(D) Sales tax
See Answer:

9. A tax that takes away a higher proportion of one's income as the income rises is termed as—
(A) Progressive tax
(B) Proportional tax
(C) Regressive tax
(D) Indirect tax
See Answer:

10. Of which of the following items, there is no significant export from India ?
(A) Readymade garments
(B) Wool
(C) Footwear
(D) Silk Apparel
See Answer:

11. Abid Hussain Committee recommendations were related to—
(A) Small Scale Industry
(B) Telecommunication
(C) Railway
(D) Capital Market
See Answer:

12. The National Disaster Management Authority was constituted on—
(A) June 5, 2006
(B) May 25, 2006
(C) August 3, 2006
(D) July 15, 2006
See Answer:

13. Which of the following forms of intellectuals property can provide the longest protection ?
(A) Copy right
(B) Patent
(C) Trademark
(D) Industrial designs
See Answer:

14. The famous international company 'De Beers' is engaged in the business of—
(A) Larger beer
(B) Animal skins
(C) Shares & stocks
(D) Diamonds
See Answer:

15. Which of the following is a Navratna PSU ?
(A) VSNL
(B) CMC
(C) MTNL
(D) IPCL
See Answer:

16. How many nationalised banks are there in India at present ?
(A) 27
(B) 19
(C) 28
(D) 20
See Answer:

17. The 11th Five Year Plan envisages the highest sectoral growth for—
(A) Agriculture
(B) Industry
(C) Manufacturing
(D) Service
See Answer:

18. If a country devalued its currency it would be having the—
(A) Floating exchange rate system
(B) Fixed exchange rate system
(C) Closed Economy
(D) Open Economy
See Answer:

19. The crucial determinant of the size of the market is—
(A) Monetary expansion
(B) Inductment for investment
(C) Productivity
(D) Savings
See Answer:

20. Which one of the following is not an example of Direct tax ?
(A) Income Tax
(B) Wealth
(C) Gift Tax
(D) Trade Tax
See Answer:

Syndicate Bank Specialist Officers Exam, 2010 : General Awareness Solved Paper

2010-09-06T20:51:00.000-07:00

Syndicate Bank Specialist Officers Exam., 2010
(Held on 23-5-2010)
General Awareness : Solved Paper

1. In one of his speeches Pranab Mukherjee said that the Govt. had no plans to dilute the roles of market regulators. This means the role of which of the following will not be diluted ?
(A) Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
(B) Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)
(C) Federation of Chamber of Commerce & Industry (FICCI)
(D) Bureau of Indian Standards
(E) Securities & Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
Ans : (E)

2. What is the full form of ‘ULIP’, the term which was in the news recently ?
(A) Universal Life & Investment Plan
(B) Unit Loan & Insurance Plan
(C) Universal Loan & Investment Plan
(D) Uniformly Loaded Investment Plan
(E) Unit Linked Insurance Plan
Ans : (E)

3. As per the news published in some major financial newspapers the Maharashtra Govt. is planning to introduce ‘Green Tax’ on vehicles. What is the purpose of Green Tax ?
(A) It has been introduced with the aim of discouraging high consumption of petroleum products
(B) It is a tax levied by the Govt. in place of VAT as VAT is not very profitable for State Govts.
(C) It is just like a toll tax which will be charged from all the vehicles whenever they enter green areas of a city like hospitals, schools, and old age homes
(D) This is a tax levied on big commercial vehicles only with the aim of prohibiting them from entering residential areas and non commercial areas
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

4. Very often we read in newspapers about 3G or 3rd Generation technology. This is a set of standards used by which of the following ?
(A) To combat climatic changes
(B) Production of Nuclear Energy
(C) Film Production
(D) Mobile Telecommunications
(E) All of these
Ans : (D)

5. Which of the following companies is not in the field of insurance business ?
(A) ICICI Prudential
(B) Bajaj Allianz
(C) Tata AIG
(D) AEGON Religare
(E) Royal Orchid
Ans : (E)

6. Many times we read that a corporate entity is in the process of raising its capital base. Why is a company required to raise money to strengthen its capital base ?
1. To finance its expansion plans
2. To finance its diversification plans
3. To repay its loans and borrowings
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (A)

7. Many times we read in newspapers that a company is planning to bring public issue. What does it mean ?
1. Shares of the company will be issued only through public sector organizations like banks/central financial institutions etc.
2. Shares of the company will be issued to general public only through primary market.
3. This means some stakeholders/promoters are willing to leave the company.
Hence, they wish to sell their stock to the general public.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. Whenever some people wish to enter into business world, it is a must for them to approach a bank. What services do banks provide them in this regard ?
1. Banks act as payment agents by operating current accounts, paying cheques and receiving payments for them.
2. Maintaining account books for them for their day to day activities so that they are not required to appoint account/finance personnel on a regular basis.
3. Lending money by way of overdraft installment loan, credit or advance for business activities.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

9. As we all have noticed banks these days are giving more emphasis on ‘Branch less Banking’. What does this really means ?
1. Banks will not have many branches as used to be in the good old days. Instead the number of branches will be restricted and will conduct only a specified core business.
2. Banks will launch/operate many delivery channels like ATMs, Mobile Banking/Internet Banking etc. so that people are not required to visit a branch for their usual banking needs.
3. This means banks will issue only debit or credit cards for all types of day to day financial transactions.
Cheques/cash payments will not be allowed.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (D)

10. As per the news published in various financial newspapers Maruti Suzuki has no immediate plans to enter into ‘low cost segment’. This means—
1. Maruti-Suzuki will not reduce the price of its various products, as is being done by some other manufacturers.
2. Maruti-Suzuki does not want to produce a ‘Nano’ like low cost car in the near future.
3. Maruti-Suzuki wants to retain its existing position of luxury car makers and will not enter into the area of makers of cars for the general public.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

11. Which of the following is not a function of a bank ?
(A) Providing project finance
(B) Selling Mutual Funds
(C) Deciding policy rates like CRR, Repo Rates/SLR etc.
(D) Settlement of payments on behalf of the customers
(E) All of these are functions of a bank
Ans : (C)

12. Which of the following is a form of ‘Small Savings Bank’ popular among the poor or children ?
(A) Core Banking
(B) Credit Banking
(C) Debit Card
(D) Merchant Banking
(E) Piggy Banking
Ans : (E)

13. As published in various newspapers India and European Union are trying to finalize a free trade pact. How will this helps India and EU ?
1. Both the parties will be able to export-import goods without tariffs, quotas and preferences on most of the goods and services traded between them.
2. The European Union will have to accept all payments in rupees only whereas India will accept all payments for its exports in Euro only. The Dollar will have no role in this business.
3. Both parties will have to decide the total value of trade between them in advance and will be bound to obey the commitment made thus.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

14. The G-20 Summit in June 2010 is scheduled to be held at which of the following places ?
(A) London
(B) Washington
(C) Tokyo
(D) Paris
(E) Toronto
Ans : (E)

15. As we all know the Govt. of India has initiated several projects/schemes for revival and recharging of water bodies/lakes etc. What is meant by recharging of water bodies ?
1. Recharge in fact is deep drainage of water bodies so that water starts moving downwards from the surface.
2. Recharge is nothing but digging new wells and lakes so that more water is available for use.
3. Recharging means levy of a tax on use of ground water for private purposes. This is done in addition to the usual tax that civic bodies collect on the usual water supply.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

16. As per the news published in various newspapers China had to face its first ‘Trade Deficit’ in six years. This means China—
(A) did not earn as much from its exports as it had to pay for its imports
(B) earn much more than its expectations on its exports and paid very less on imports
(C) has decided to stop imports and exports for the time being as it is producing just enough for tis consumption
(D) has failed to keep its commitment to supply (export) goods as promised to various countries. The result is it may have to devalue its currency (Yuan) as it has lost its credibility in the market
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

17. Several Public Sector organizat ons like ONGC, SAIL and NTPC received ‘Scope Award.’ The award is given for which of the following ?
(A) Earning the highet profit amongst all PSUs
(B) For creating the maximum number of jobs in a year
(C) For donating the maximum amount in Pradhan Mantri Rahat Kosh in a year
(D) For cutting down expenditure by 50% or more in a year to wipe out losses made in the previous year
(E) Best Corporate Governance
Ans : (E)

18. Iron Ore is found in which of the following states in India ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Orissa
(D) Jammu & Kashmir
(E) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (C)

19. Which of the following countries is in a deep crisis these days and is struggling to finance its budget deficit and govt. debt ?
(A) Russia
(B) Greece
(C) Britain
(D) USA
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

20. As per the budget documents placed in the Parliament in February 2010, what are the challenges India is facing on its economic front ?
1. To quickly revert to the high GDP growth path of 9%.
2. Making development more inclusive.
3. To strengthen the governmental system and the process of governance at different levels.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

21. Prabha Rao was the Governor of which of the following States immediately prior to her death ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Goa
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. Who amongst the following is not a famous Lawn Tennis player ?
(A) Cara Black
(B) Mike Bryan
(C) Denis Ndiso
(D) Serena Williams
(E) Leander Paes
Ans : (C)

23. Dr. K. Radhakrishnan whose name was in the news recently is the Chariman of—
(A) Indian Space Research Organisation
(B) Atomic Energy Commission
(C) Department of Information Technology
(D) Unique Identification Authority of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

24. Which of the following awards is given by the Govt. of Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru Award
(C) Shikhar Samman
(D) Pravasi Bhartiya Samman
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

25. Which of the following terms is not used in Cricket ?
(A) Ashes
(B) Backfoot shot
(C) Smash
(D) Crease
(E) All are used in cricket
Ans : (C)

26. Which of the following cups/trophies is not given for excellence in the game of Badminton ?
(A) Uber Cup
(B) Thomas Cup
(C) Syed Modi Memorial Trophy
(D) Aros Junior Cup
(E) Merdeka Cup
Ans : (E)

27. The Ministerial level meeting of the BASIC Group of countries was held in New Delhi in January 2010. Which of the following is not a member of the BASIC Group ?
(A) Brazil
(B) South Africa
(C) Russia
(D) China
(E) India
Ans : (C)

28. Which of the following Bills recently approved in the Union Cabinet will help in better health services in the country ?
(A) Right to Better Health Services Bill
(B) National Health Care Bill
(C) Clinical Establishments (Registration & Regulation) Bill
(D) Essential Services Bill
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

29. Who amongst the following is a Padmashri Award Winner given away recently ?
(A) Chanda Kochhar
(B) Kumar Mangalam Birla
(C) Saif Ali Khan
(D) Harsh Pati Singhania
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

30. Who amongst the following is not a famous author ?
(A) V. S. Naipual
(B) Leander Paes
(C) Anita Desai
(D) Kiran Desai
(E) Chetan Bhagat
Ans : (B)

31. Ivo Josipovic whose name was in news recently is the—
(A) Prime Minister of Croatia
(B) President of Croatia
(C) President of Barbados
(D) Prime Minister of Bolivia
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

32. Priyanka Chopra was given a National Award at the 56th National Awards for her acting for which of the following films ?
(A) Love Story 2050
(B) What’s your Rashee
(C) Kaminey
(D) Fashion
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

33. Roger Federer is a famous—
(A) Film actor
(B) Author
(C) Lawn Tennis Player
(D) Cricketer
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

34. Who amongst the following was awarded the prestigious Dada Saheb Phalke Award recently ?
(A) V. K. Moorthy
(B) Madhur Bhandarkar
(C) Mahesh Bhatt
(D) Rekha
(E) Hema Malini
Ans : (A)

35. Lee Myung-bak who was the Chief Guest at 61st Republic Day Function of India is the—
(A) President of South Korea
(B) Prime Minister of South Korea
(C) President of Vietnam
(D) Prime Minister of Vietnam
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

36. The Late Jyoti Basu was associated with which of the following political parties ?
(A) BJP
(B) CPI (M)
(C) Congress
(D) Samajwadi Party
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

37. Which of the following schemes launched by the Govt. of India is a scheme to improve the performance of the agricultural sector ?
(A) National Horticulture Mission
(B) Pulse Polio Abhiyan
(C) Old Age Pension Scheme
(D) Bharat Nirman Yojana
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

38. ‘LBW’ is a term related to the game of—
(A) Badminton
(B) Cricket
(C) Hockey
(D) Football
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

39. ‘Saraswati Samman’ is an award given for excellence in the field of—
(A) Sports
(B) Social Service
(C) Literature
(D) Science & Technology
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

40. ‘Heavy Water’ is used in which of the following fields ?
(A) Thermal Power
(B) Cement
(C) Iron & Steel
(D) Nuclear Power
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

41. Which of the following is a Horticulture Crop ?
(A) Paddy
(B) Wheat
(C) Mango
(D) Bajara
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

42. Dr. Amartya Sen is a famous—
(A) Physicist
(B) Chemical Engineer
(C) Psychologist
(D) Economist
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

43. Which of the following nations is considered the originator of the concept of Micro Finance ?
(A) India
(B) Bangladesh
(C) South Africa
(D) USA
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

44. India’s first transgenic Crop was—
(A) Potato
(B) Brinjal
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Bt. cotton
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

45. ‘White Tiger’ is a book written by—
(A) R. K. Narayanan
(B) Shobha De
(C) Khushwant Singh
(D) Arundhati Roy
(E) Aravind Adiga
Ans : (E)

46. Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award is given for excellence in the field of—
(A) Literature
(B) Music
(C) Sports
(D) Science & Technology
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

47. Usain Bolt is a famous—
(A) Cricket player
(B) Athlete
(C) Badminton Player
(D) Footballer
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

48. Govt. normally does not announce the Minimum Support Price (MSP) of—
(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Jute
(E) All of these
Ans : (D)

49. At present Dr. D. Subba Rao is the—
(A) Governor of Orissa
(B) Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission
(C) Chairman of the FICCI
(D) India’s Representative in IMF
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

50. Banks borrow money from the RBI on which of the following rates ?
(A) Bank rate
(B) CRR
(C) SLR
(D) Reverse Repo Rate
(E) Repo Rate
Ans : (E)

Bank of India Recruitment 2010 – 2467 Clerk Vacancy

2010-07-21T09:29:00.000-07:00

Bank of India Recruitment 2010 – 2467 Clerk Vacancy. July 20, 2010

Bank of India needs 2467 clerks in all over India branches. Bank of India is the top nationalized bank in India. The age should be between 18 to 28 years to apply for the jobs. Other details like qualifications, number of vacancies, salary pay scale, eligibility criteria to apply the vacancies in Bank of India as follows.

Position: Clerical Cadre – Clerks

● Number of vacancies: 2467
● Salary Pay Scale: Basic Pay in Time Scale of Rs.7200 - Rs.19300 + DA, HRA, CCA, Conveyance Allowance. Gratuity, Pension, LFC, Medical Aid etc. as per the Industry Level Settlement & Other facilities as per Bank’s Rules.
● Age should be between: 18 – 28 years ((Applicant’s Date of Birth should not be prior to 01/07/1982 & after 30/06/1992)

Qualifications: Pass with 50% marks in the aggregate, either in the Higher Secondary School (HSC) Examination or Standard XII under the 10+2+3 pattern or Standard XI under the 11+4 pattern or its equivalent of recognized Educational Board, acceptable to the Bank.
OR
A degree from UGC recognized University (Graduation level)

Application Fee: For General / OBC Candidates: Rs. 250
Selection Procedure will be done by written test and interview.

Important Dates to Remember:

● Challan availability Date: 16/07/2010
● Starting date for submission of application online: 16/07/2010
● Closing date for submission application online: 05/08/2010
● Payment must be done between: 16/07/2010 –05/08/2010
● Date consideration for Age, Qualification & Eligibility: as on 30/06/2010
● Written Examination date: 26/09/2010
● Clerical Recruitment Project 2010/11

More Information: To get the complete information about the recruitment of clerical staff in Bank of India, like syllabus, written exam dates, exam centres, application form, application format, procedure of application, rules, regulation and detail advertisement go the: http://www.bankofindia.com/career.aspx

UCO Bank Recruitment 2010 for 1000 Posts of Clerks

2010-07-21T09:27:00.000-07:00

UCO Bank Recruitment 2010 for 1000 Posts of Clerks Jobs in July 2010

UCO Bank recently published a detail advertisement for the recruitment of 1000 clerks in all over India branches. UCO Bank a leading listed Public Sector Bank in India. The age should be between 18years to 28years as on 1st July, 2010. The following are the main detail like qualification, age limit, pay scale and other details. Interested candidates can apply for the jobs only by online by the link given below.

● No. of Vacancies: 1000 posts
● Age Limit: 18 to 28 years as on 1st July, 2010.
● Qualification for the Jobs: Pass with 60% marks in 10+2 examination or its equivalent OR a degree in any discipline. For SC/ST/EX-Servicemen/PC Category candidates: Pass with 50% marks in 10+2 examination or its equivalent OR a degree in any discipline.
● Pay Scale: Rs 7200 – 400/3 – 8400 – 500/3 – 9900 – 600/4 – 12300 – 700/7 – 17200 – 1300/1 – 18500 – 800/1 – 19300 DA,HRA etc. will be paid as per rules in force from time to time depending upon the place of posting. Medical, LFC, Terminal Benefits etc. will be as per prevailing rules

Important Dates to Remember :

● Payment of Application Fee/Postage Charges From 21.07.2010 – To 28.08.2010
● Starting Date for Online Registration 21.07.2010
● Last Date for Online Registration 28.08.2010
● Date of Written Examination 14.11.2010

For More Information : To get the complete information about the recruitment in UCO Bank of 1000 clerks like rules and regulations, how to apply, application form, online procedure, syllabus, written exam dates, written exam centers, date of results, interview dates and other detail notification go to the main advertisement issued by itself by the UCO Bank.

Allahabad Bank P.O. Exam, 2010 : General Awareness Solved Paper

2010-07-20T20:29:00.000-07:00

Allahabad Bank Probationary Officer Exam., 2010
General Awareness : Solved Paper

(Held on 21-2-2010)

1. As we all know banks publish their quarterly performance to bring transparency in the system and also to give a clear picture of their performance to the public. How were results of Quarter 2 different from the results of Quarter 1 of the listed banks including giants like SBI and ICICI banks ?
1. Performance was subdued in the Quarter 2.
2. Yields on advances of almost all listed banks have come down.
3. Advances grew at a slower pace when compared to deposits.
(A) Only 1 is true
(B) Only 2 is true
(C) Only 3 is true
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are true
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

2. After the Subprime crisis which of the following problems has hit the global economy/world markets recently ?
(A) Dubai debt problem
(B) Change of Government in Japan and its new economic policies
(C) High rate of inflation in India
(D) Extremely volatile behaviour of the Bombay Stock Exchange and other major Stock Exchanges world wide
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. As per the news published in major newspapers in India Banks in India need about 12 lakh business correspondents for rural areas. What will be the role of these correspondents ?
1. They will help rural people in their day-to-day banking activities.
2. They will work as a link between banks and the customers.
3. They will ascertain eligibility of rural people so that relief packages can be provided to them.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

4. It is evident that the economic slowdown still continues to weigh on the performance of the banks in India. How is this affecting banks and/or general public ?
(A) The number of bank account holders has gone down
(B) The gross Non-Proforming Assets (NPAs) of the listed banks have increased substantially
(C) Inflation has reached at a very high level
(D) Relief packages announced by the Govt. have proved insufficient to improve the situation of agri sector
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

5. Why has Dr. Subir Gokarn’s name been in the news recently ?
(A) He has taken over as the Governor of the RBI
(B) He has taken over as the Deputy Governor of the RBI
(C) He will be the new Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission of India
(D) He has taken over as the Chief of the Economic Advisory Council attached to Prime Minister’s Office
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. As published in various newspaper, the Experian Credit Information Company of India is going to launch its operation in India soon. At present the only credit information bureau functional in India is—
(A) AMFI
(B) ICRA
(C) CIBIL
(D) CRISIL
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

7. As per the news published in a financial publication RBI is redesigning its ‘ECS’ to function as a Automated Clearing House (ACH) for bulk transactions. What is full form of ‘ECS’ ?
(A) Extra Closing System
(B) Electronic Cheque System
(C) Evening Cheque Sorter
(D) Evening Cheque System
(E) Electronic Clearing Service
Ans : (E)

8. Which of the following challenges will be the most crucial for human existence on earth in the days to come ?
(A) Pollution
(B) Food Security
(C) Availability of natural gas
(D) Need for Financial Inclusion
(E) Cyber Crimes
Ans : (A)

9. The Reserve Bank of India has asked all the banks to install ‘Note Sorting Machines’ in the branches. How will this help banks and the general public ?
1. The machines will check for counterfeit notes and drop these from circulation.
2. This will help banks to count the notes quickly and accurately.
3. This will help in sorting out soiled notes so that they are not reissued by the banks.
(A) Only 2
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

10. A study report entitled ‘India Generation Gap Review’ was presented at the World Economic Forum in November 2009. This was presented during which of the following summits/conferences ?
(A) G-8 Summit
(B) G-20 Summit
(C) India Economic Summit
(D) SAARC Finance Ministers’ Conference
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

11. As we know the Government of India has notified certain new rules to calculate Income Tax on various perks like accommodation, and conveyance etc. being given by employers to their salaried employees. The new rules will replace which of the following taxes which has been abolished now ?
(A) Capital Gains Tax
(B) Sales Tax
(C) Cash Transaction Tax
(D) Fringe Benefit Tax
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

12. Dr. K. Radhakrishnan has taken over as the Chief of—
(A) Electronics Commission
(B) Indian Space Research Organisation
(C) Atomic Energy Commission of India
(D) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

13. As per the guidelines issued by the RBI, banks are preparing for a service which will allow customers to withdraw upto Rs. 1,000 using their debit cards from notified shops/stores all over the country. All such shops/stores will have ‘POS’ terminals for the same. What is full form of the ‘POS’ ?
(A) Payment on Sale
(B) Power of Sale
(C) Point of Sale
(D) Payment Order Service
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

14. The working group set up by the RBI has suggested the launch of an Emergency Fund Facility Scheme for banks. This scheme will help which of the following types of banks ?
(A) Public Sector Banks
(B) Small Banks
(C) Urban Cooperative Banks
(D) Private Banks
(E) Foreign Banks
Ans : (C)

15. As published in major newspapers public sector banks have asked the Government of India to provide more funds for ‘Capital Infusion’. How much is the need of PSBs collectively for the purpose ? (Rs. in crores)
(A) Rs. 10,000
(B) Rs. 15,000
(C) Rs. 20,000
(D) Rs. 25,000
(E) Rs. 30,000
Ans : (B)

16. Who amongst the following has purchased about 200 tonnes of gold from International Monetary Fund (IMF) in 2009 ?
(A) Infrastructure Finance Company Ltd.
(B) Bombay Stock Exchange of India
(C) Gold Council of India
(D) Reserve Bank of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

17. One of the major emphasis of Basel II is that banks should have—
(A) adequate Capital Adequacy Ratio
(B) only few branches in urban centres
(C) more and more branches in rural areas
(D) core banking mode of operation
(E) all the above to comply with Base II norms
Ans : (A)

18. As per the reports published by various agencies/organizations, it is estimated that around 3 billion extra people will join our existing population of 6 billion by the year-2050. To provide food for all of them, a second round of which of the following initiatives is required to be started much in advance ?
(A) Green Revolution
(B) Planned Urbanisation
(C) Industrialisation
(D) Climate Migration
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)

19. Who amongst the following is the President of the European Union at present ?
(A) Catherine Ashton
(B) Mr. Jose Manuel Barroso
(C) Mr. Fredrik Reinfeldt
(D) Mr. Sergi Lavrov
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

20. As per the reports published in various newspapers and journals almost all big nations are trying their best to resolve various disputes between the nations wherein either they are a party or because of that their peace and stability may be affected. Stability in which of the following two nations is more vital to India than that of any other nations ?
(A) Bangladesh and China
(B) China and USA
(C) Iraq and Russia
(D) South and North Korea
(E) Pakistan and Afghanistan
Ans : (E)

21. India’s bilateral per annum trade with European Union at present is about—
(A) 50 billion US $
(B) 75 billion US $
(C) 100 billion US $
(D) 150 billion US $
(E) 200 billion US $
Ans : (C)

22. Some world bodies/organisations/agencies are of the view that agriculture should adopt a ‘Cross Disciplinary Approach’, and take help of all types of sciences and studies. This approach will help in which of the following crucial problems being faced by humanity ?
(A) Use of Genetically Modified Crop
(B) Melting of glaciers
(C) Food crisis
(D) Climate change
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

23. An agreement between two nations or a group of nations which establishes unimpeded exchange and flow of goods and services between/among trade partners regardless of national boundaries is called—
(A) Import Free Agreement
(B) Free Trade Agreement
(C) Export Free Agreement
(D) Special Economic Zone Agreement
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. Which of the following correctly describe what ‘One Carbon Credit’ is ?
1. Credit permit to release one ton of carbon dioxide.
2. Providing loans to establish one new production unit which can produce carbon dioxide for industrial use.
3. Finding out one new business which can use and recycle green house gases.
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

25. As per various reports issued by the UNO and other world bodies, agricultural and allied activities consume what percentage of global water resources every year ? About—
(A) 15 per cent
(B) 30 per cent
(C) 50 per cent
(D) 70 per cent
(E) 60 per cent
Ans : (B)

26. The Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) is a wing/agency of the—
(A) World Bank
(B) United Nations Organisation
(C) Asian Development Bank
(D) Ministry of Agriculture Govt. of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. As a policy, India does not encourage free movement of unskilled labours from—
(A) Gulf Countries
(B) USA and South American Nations
(C) European Union Nations
(D) All these nations
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. The Government of India has decided to disinvest its share in major public sector undertakings. How much of its share will be offloaded in this method ?
(A) 2 per cent
(B) 4 per cent
(C) 8 per cent
(D) 10 per cent
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

29. The United Nations Development Fund for Women (UNIFEM) is working in an Indian city to make it safe for women. Which of the following is that city ?
(A) Pune
(B) Kolkata
(C) Delhi
(D) Mumbai
(E) Lucknow
Ans : (C)

30. At present the trade between India and China is in a state of ‘Payment imbalance’. What does this mean in real terms ?
1. China does not import many items from India whereas India imports more from China.
2. China does not pay India in time and a lot of delay is reported by the exporters.
3. India wants all payments to be made in US Dollars whereas China pays in its own currency.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

31. India has signed an agreement on climate change with which of the following countries recently ?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) United Kingdom
(D) Australia
(E) China
Ans : (E)

32. Some Scientists are of the opinion that extra agricultural production should be achieved without going for the cultivation of extra land and also without causing damage to essential eco-system. This concept, in other words, is known as—
(A) Sustainable growth
(B) Renewability of inputs
(C) Global Melt down
(D) Climate Migration
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

33. Mr. Z. E. A. Ben Ali has taken over as the President of—
(A) Tunisia
(B) Malaysia
(C) Indonesia
(D) Kuwait
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. Which of the following is not a Government of India undertaking ?
(A) Oil India Ltd.
(B) Sutlej Jal Vidyut Nigam Ltd.
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) National Thermal Power Corporation Ltd.
(E) Rural Electrification Corporation Ltd.
Ans : (C)

35. India shares its border with China along the Himalayan range. Which of the folllowing states touches the border of China ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Bihar
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Chhattisgarh
(E) All of these
Ans : (C)

36. Which of the following has been the growth of India’s GDP during 2008-09 ? (Final data are issued in late 2009)
(A) 5 per cent
(B) 5•5 per cent
(C) 6 per cent
(D) 6•5 per cent
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

37. Which of the following ministries had launched a new ‘Skill Development Initiative Scheme’ so that the employability of the young people can be increased ?
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) Ministry of Agriculture
(C) Ministry of Heavy Industry
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs
(E) Ministry of Labour and Employment
Ans : (E)

38. Sachin Tendulkar has recently become the first cricketer in ODI history to cross the milestone of—
(A) 10000 runs
(B) 12000 runs
(C) 15000 runs
(D) 17000 runs
(E) 20000 runs
Ans : (D)

39. The East Asia Summit took place in October 2009 in Hua Hin town. This is a town in—
(A) China
(B) Myanmar
(C) Cambodia
(D) Malaysia
(E) Thailand
Ans : (A)

40. What per cent of India’s GDP is invested in providing education ?
(A) 1 per cent
(B) 2•5 per cent
(C) 4 per cent
(D) 6 per cent
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

41. India has recently gained the status of becoming the third largest producer of Steel in the world. Who is the largest producer ?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) Japan
(D) China
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

42. ‘Dadaab Refugee Camp’ which was in the news recently is located in which of the following countries ?
(A) Sudan
(B) Iraq
(C) Pakistan
(D) Afghanistan
(E) Kenya
Ans : (E)

43. Which of the following countries objected to the Indian Prime Minister’s recent visit to Arunachal Pradesh ?
(A) Pakistan
(B) Nepal
(C) Myanmar
(D) Bhutan
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

44. Which of the following not associated with climate change and/or Global Warming ?
(A) Basel Norms
(B) Bali Meet 2007
(C) Copenhagen Conference
(D) Kyoto Protocol
(E) Bangkok Meet in 2009
Ans : (A)

45. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Hockey ?
(A) Baseline
(B) Smash
(C) Drop
(D) Centre Forward
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

46. Which of the following Genetically Modified vegetables is recently being made available in India markets ?
(A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Brinjal
(D) Potato
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

47. Each Nobel Prize winner gets an amount of 10 million Swedish—
(A) Kroner
(B) Dollar
(C) Yen
(D) Pound
(E) Euro
Ans : (A)

48. Which of the following not a plant product ?
(A) Camphor
(B) Aloe vera
(C) Vanilla
(D) Kiwi
(E) All are plant products
Ans : (E)

49. Dr. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan is one of the recipients of the Nobel Prize in the field of—
(A) Physics
(B) Chemistry
(C) Medicine
(D) Economics
(E) Literature
Ans : (B)

50. As per the reports published in newspapers the Govt. of India has asked all the states to conduct a ‘Social Audit’ of each and every work of which of the following schemes ?
(A) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(B) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(C) Indira Aawas Yojana
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

51. Which of the following is not the name of a major Lawn Tennis Tournament ?
(A) US Open
(B) Wimbledon
(C) French Open
(D) Grand Master
(E) Australian Open
Ans : (D)

52. ‘Derby’ is associated with which of the following sports events ?
(A) Horse Racing
(B) Chess
(C) Cricket
(D) Hockey
(E) Football
Ans : (A)

53. Which of the following terms is not used in Banking and Finance ?
(A) Bid Price
(B) Jacksonian Seizure
(C) Call Option
(D) Bluechip
(E) Dividend
Ans : (B)

54. Dada Saheb Phalke Award is given for the exemplary work in the field of …………
(A) Literature
(B) Music
(C) Films
(D) Sports
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

55. Who amongst the following is the Chief Justice of India at present ?
(A) Justice R. C. Lahoti
(B) Justice V. K. Sabharwal
(C) Justice G. P. Mathur
(D) Justice K. G. Balakrishnan
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

56. Which of the following terms is not used in Economics ?
(A) Exogenous
(B) Depreciation
(C) Deep Market
(D) Zero Sum Game
(E) Handedness
Ans : (A)

57. Who amongst the following is not a Lawn Tennis player ?
(A) Cara Black
(B) Dinara Safina
(C) Jelena Jankovic
(D) Leander Paes
(E) Anand Pawar
Ans : (E)

58. Which of the following books is written by V. S. Naipaul ?
(A) A Woman Alone
(B) The Open Couple
(C) The Grass is Singing
(D) The Golden Notebook
(E) Half a Life
Ans : (E)

59. Sri Balraj Puri, who was in the news recently, is a famous …….
(A) Classical Singer
(B) Cine Actor
(C) Social Worker
(D) Sportsman
(E) Journalist
Ans : (E)

60. Which of the following is caused by H5N1 virus ?
(A) Yellow fever
(B) Measles
(C) Plague
(D) Bird flu
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

61. Which of the following rivers is not in India ?
(A) Tapti
(B) Ural
(C) Mahi
(D) Mahanadi
(E) Penner
Ans : (B)

62. Mr. Mohamed Nasheed was on a five day state visit to India recently. He is the President of—
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Iran
(C) Indonesia
(D) Maldives
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

63. India celebrated which of the following Birth Anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi in October 2009 ?
(A) 110
(B) 120
(C) 130
(D) 140
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

64. Which of the following states has launched e-Shakti Programme so that poverty can be reduced in the state ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Bihar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

65. Which of the following schemes is launched by the Government of India to improve the health of pregnant and lactating mothers ?
(A) Matritva Sahayog Yojana
(B) Dhan Lakshmi Yojana
(C) ASHA
(D) Health for All Scheme
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

66. As per the decision taken by the Orissa Cabinet the new name of the state would be written as—
(A) Odisha
(B) Orissha
(C) Aurissa
(D) Horissa
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

67. India recently organized sixth ministerial level of Indo-US-TPF. What is fullform of TPF ?
(A) Trade Policy Forum
(B) Traditional Planning Force
(C) Trade and Payment Finance
(D) Technical Planning Force
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

68. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of state level agency on afforestation created by the Government of India ?
(A) NDMA
(B) SFDA
(C) ICMJE
(D) ICCROM
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

69. Which of the following states has launched ‘Atta-Dal Scheme’ under which atta and dal will be supplied at affordable prices to ration card holders ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Gujarat
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Orissa
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

70. Which of the following states has the maximum number of Sugar mills ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat
(D) Haryana
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

71. India purchased the Break Anti Missile Defence System from—
(A) USA
(B) Japan
(C) France
(D) Israel
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

72. Mullaperiyar Dam is built on which of the following rivers ?
(A) Pamba
(B) Godavari
(C) Krishna
(D) Cauvery
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

73. Which of the following countries won the Champions Trophy Cricket Tournament 2009 ?
(A) England
(B) Pakistan
(C) Australia
(D) New Zealand
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

74. Who amongst the following has been nominated for Man Booker Prize–2009 ?
(A) J. M. Coetzee
(B) Hilary Mantel
(C) Sarah Waters
(D) Thomas Cromwell
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

75. Shantiswarup Bhatnagar Awards are given for excellence in the field of—
(A) Sports
(B) Economics
(C) Science and Technology
(D) Cinema
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Corporation Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 9-5-2010 Solved Paper

2010-07-19T09:14:00.001-07:00

Corporation Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 2010

(Held on 9-5-2010)
English Language : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

There are various sectors in India that are to be assessed for their strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats.

The total population is over 1 billion which will increase to 1•46 billion by 2035 to cross China. The huge population will result in higher unemployment and deterioration of quality. Literacy, in India is yet another factor to be discussed. According to 1991 census, 64•8% of the population was illiterate. The major downtrend of education is due to child labour which has spread all over India and this should be totally eradicated by way of surveillance and a good educational system implemented properly by the Government.

Pollution is one more threat to the environment and for the country’s prospects. This has been experienced more in urban areas mainly in metropolitan cities. The water pollution by the sewage seepage into the ground water and improper maintenance will lead to various diseases which in turn will affect the next generation. In most of the cities there is no proper sewage disposal. The Government has to take effective steps to control population which, in turn, will minimize the pollution.

Poverty questions the entire strength of India’s political view and minimizes the energetic way of approach. The shortfall of rains, enormous floods, unexpected famine, drought, earthquake and the recent tsunami hit the country in a negative way. The proactive approach through effective research and analytical study helps us to determine the effects in advance. Proper allocation of funds is a prerequisite. In developed countries like U.S., Japan precautionary methods are adopted to overcome this, but it has to be improved a lot in our systems.

Increased population is one of the major reasons for poverty and the Government is unable to allocate funds for basic needs to the society. India has nearly 400 million people living below the poverty line and 90% of active population is in informal economy. The children are forced to work due to their poverty and differential caste system. They work in match industry for daily wages, as servants, mechanics, stone breakers, agricultural workers, etc. To prevent child labour, existing laws which favour the Anti Child Labour Act should be implemented by the Government vigorously.

More population results in cheap cost by virtue of the demand supply concept. Most of the foreign countries try to utilize this factor by outsourcing their business in India with a very low capital. According to U.S., India is a ‘Knowledge pool’ with cheap labour. The major advantage is our communication and technical skill which is adaptable to any environment. The cutting edge skill in IT of our professionals helps the outsourcing companies to commensurate with the needs of the consumers in a short span. The major competitors for India are China and Philippines and by the way of an effective communication and expert technical ability, Indians are ahead of the race. The major Metropolitan states are targeting the outsourcing field vigorously by giving various amenities to the outsourcing companies like tax concession, allotting land etc., to start their businesses in its cities without any hurdles. Thereby most of the MNCs prefer India as their destinations and capitalize the resources to maximize their assets. Infrastructure is another key factor for an outsourcing company to start a business in a particular city. It includes road, rail, ports, power and water. The increased input in infrastructure in India is very limited where China’s record is excellent.

India in earlier days gave more importance to the development of industry and less importance to other departments. But the scenario has quite changed now-a-days by allocating a special budget of funds for security. This is because of the frightening increase in terrorism all around the world especially emerging after the 9/11 terror attack in U.S. In the last ten years, budget towards the development of military forces is higher when compared to others. It shows that the threat from our neighbouring countries is escalating. India has to concentrate more on this security factor to wipe out the problem in the way of cross-border terrorism.

Making India a developed country in 2020 is not an easy task. India has to keep in check a variety of factors in order to progress rapidly. To quote China as an example is that they demolished an old building to construct a very big port to meet future demands, but India is still waiting for things to happen. The profits gained by India through various sectors are to be spent for the development and welfare of the country. India’s vision for a brighter path will come true not only by mere words or speech, but extra effort is needed at all levels to overcome the pitfalls.

1. Which of the following, according to the author, is/are a result(s) of increased population in India ?
1. Pollution
2. Poverty
3. Unemployment
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

2. Why, according to the author, has the Indian Government allotted more funds to strengthen the military forces ?
(A) To improve security in order to counter increasing terrorism
(B) As the security in India over the past ten years was grossly inadequate
(C) As the U.S. too has strengthened its military forces after the 9/11 attack
(D) As the industry is developed enough and is not in need of any more funds
(E) None of these

3. What is the author’s main objective in writing this passage ?
(A) To exhort the Government to garner support from its neighbouring countries
(B) To suggest to the Government to follow China’s example blindly thereby bringing about rapid development
(C) To highlight the plight of the poor
(D) To discuss the problems of child labour and suggest suitable remedies
(E) To bring forth the problems associated with India’s development and to suggest measures to counter them

4. Why, according to the author, is India one of the favourite destinations for investment by outsourcing companies ?
1. Shorter response time for clients.
2. Better technical skills.
3. Availability of cheap labour.
(A) Only 1
(B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) Only 1

5. Which of the following is/are true in the context of the passage ?
1. India leads the way in the amount invested in the development of infrastructure.
2. Political system in India is not influenced by poverty.
3. Indian population would increase by approximately 50 per cent in the next twenty five years.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

6. Which of the following is/are the facility(ies) available to MNCs investing in India ?
1. Easy availability of land.
2. Better infrastructure than China.
3. Tax Concessions.
(A) Only 3
(B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) None of these

7. Which of the following, according to the author, is a result of poverty in India ?
(A) Lack of a robust security system
(B) Child labour and the resulting dearth of educated youth
(C) Floods, famines and other calamities
(D) Rapid increase in population
(E) None of these

8. How, according to the author, can the effects of floods, famines, droughts, etc. be minimized ?
(A) By limiting pollution thereby reducing the chances of such events taking place
(B) By educating the children about the ill effects of such calamities who in turn will help during the time of need
(C) By following the U.S. system of providing relief to its citizens
(D) By allotting proper funds for research which can predict the outcome of such calamities and thus design relief measures
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 9–12) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. SURVEILLANCE
(A) Spying
(B) Cameras
(C) Security
(D) Observation
(E) Alertness

10. PREREQUISITE
(A) Result
(B) Association
(C) Necessity
(D) Factor
(E) Mystery

11. PROSPECTS
(A) Assimilation
(B) Demand
(C) Future
(D) Brochure
(E) Diagnosis

12. COMMENSURATE
(A) Match
(B) Extracting
(C) Contemplating
(D) Request
(E) Employing

Directions—(Q. 13–15) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage ?

13. LIMITED
(A) Abundant
(B) Complete
(C) Flowing
(D) Inadequate
(E) Encompassing

14. DIFFERENTIAL
(A) Solitude
(B) Homogeneous
(C) Synonymous
(D) Unique
(E) Different

15. VIGOROUSLY
(A) Simply
(B) Regularly
(C) Roughly
(D) Softly
(E) Leniently

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make it meaningful and grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. Banks charge differently rate of interest depending on the size of the loan.
(A) Difference in rate of interests
(B) Differently what rate of interest
(C) Different rates of interest
(D) The different rate of interest
(E) No correction required

17. It is necessary that we take any steps to reduce pollution soon.
(A) We should take every
(B) We have taken no
(C) Us to take any
(D) We take some
(E) No correction requireds

18. It is too early to say how the impact the new tax will have on investors.
(A) What impact
(B) That the impact
(C) How much impacts
(D) What are the impacts of
(E) No correction required

19. Kindly ask his advice regarding the various health insurance policies presently available.
(A) Him to advise that
(B) Regarding his advise
(C) That he should advice
(D) About his advice
(E) No correction required

20. Unfortunately many of our towns and cities do have more good transportation Systems.
(A) Have a good
(B) Not have good
(C) Not have much good
(D) Not having better
(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below—
(1) With all the bid information being available and tracked online, corruption has considerably reduced.
(2) Today, most i.e. over ninety-five per cent households, in the city enjoy Broad Band connection.
(3) All city contracts are now bid for online.
(4) Over twenty years ago the city government, central government and the private Sector made a concerned effort to shift the economy to include IT
(5) As our cities expand and become more complex, such a system will make Governance more manageable.
(6) This level of connectedness has changed not only the city’s economy but also how it is governed and how business is conducted.

21. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

22. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6

23. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6

24. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

25. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6

Directions—(Q. 26–35) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)

26. Some genuine issues exist (A) / with the newly adopted (B) / system and needs to (C) / be examined seriously. (D) No error (E)

27. Whether or not to confront (A) / them about their role (B) / in the matter is a decision (C) / which is yet to take. (D) No error (E)

28. The government is still in the (A) / process of finalized new policy (B) / guidelines for the allocation of land (C) / to private sector organizations. (D) No error (E)

29. According to government estimates (A) / at least four millions tonnes of sugar (B) / will have to be imported (C) / this year because of a poor monsoon. (D) No error (E)

30. In our experience people usually (A) /value things that they have to (B) / pay off more than those that (C) / they receive free of cost. (D) No error (E)

31. At present China is the (A) / world’s leader manufacture (B) / of environment friendly products (C) / such as electric cars and bicycles. (D) No error (E)

32. Over eighty per cent from us (A) / feel that if we had taken (B) / some corrective measures earlier (C) / the crisis could have been averted. (D) No error (E)

33. The manager of that city branch (A) /cannot handle it with the help of (B) /only two personnel as (C) / business has increased substantially. (D) No error (E)

34. With the literacy rates in this (A) /region as low as ten per cent (B) /we need to encourage (C) / local people to build schools. (D) No error (E)

35. While providing such facilities (A) /online makes it covenient (B) / and easily accessible for customers (C) / we face several challenges. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be Either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.

36. The bank’s fluctuating (A) performance over the prior (B) year has been a major (C) cause (D) for concern. All correct (E)

37. An economy relies (A) on its access (B) to dependable (C) and affordable (D) sources of energy. All correct (E)

38. Researches have used data prevalent (A) to manufacturing companies to illustrate (B) the harmful (C) impacts (D) of technology on the environment. All correct (E)

39. Such a situation (A) is neither feasible (B) nor desirable (C) in a democratic country like ours. (D) All correct (E)

40. The gradual (A) withdrawal (B) of such safety (C) mechanisims (D) will affect small and medium industries the most. All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The world’s climate has always changed and species have evolved accordingly to survive it. The surprising fact about the …(41)… between evolution and global warning …(42)… that it is not liner. …(43)… temperatures alone are not …(44)… of evolution. Evolution is also the …(45)… of seasonal changes. As the environment …(46)… those species which don’t adapt …(47)… to exist.

But the sheer …(48)… of manmade climate change today is …(49)…. ‘Bad things are happening’ and by one …(50)… global warning could threaten upto one-third of the world’s species if left unchecked. In fact a lot of the species which will be able to survive are the ones we consider pests like insects and weeds.

41. (A) difference
(B) similarity
(C) argument
(D) relationship
(E) alliance

42. (A) being
(B) seems
(C) mainly
(D) besides
(E) is

43. (A) however
(B) mounted
(C) rising
(D) elevating
(E) inclining

44. (A) means
(B) triggers
(C) responses
(D) threats
(E) stimulus

45. (A) results
(B) precursor
(C) resistance
(D) cause
(E) provocation

46. (A) conserves
(B) stifles
(C) predicts
(D) changes
(E) emerges

47. (A) continue
(B) halt
(C) cease
(D) terminate
(E) discontinue

48. (A) luck
(B) value
(C) coolapse
(D) pace
(E) attention

49. (A) threatened
(B) pursued
(C) unprecedented
(D) record
(E) debated

50. (A) forecast
(B) chance
(C) pattern
(D) occasion
(E) imagination

Answers :
1. (E) 2. (A) 3. (E) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (D) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (E) 16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (E) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (E) 26. (C) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29. (B) 30. (C)
31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (E) 38. (A) 39. (E) 40. (D)
41. (A) 42. (E) 43. (C) 44. (A) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (C) 50. (B)

SBI Specialist Management-Technical Executives Vacancy July-2010

2010-07-18T21:07:00.000-07:00

SBI Specialist Management-Technical Executives vacancy July-2010

Advertisement No. CRPD/SME & STE/2010-11/02

On-Line Applications are invited from eligible Indian Citizens for 560 posts of Specialist Management Executives and Specialist Technical Executives in State Bank of India (SBI).

Date of Written Examination : 31/10/2010
Receipt of Online Applications : 31/08/2010

Specialist Management Executives : 500 posts (SC-75, ST-37, OBC-135, UR-253) (PH-15), Qualification : Post Graduate Degree/ Diploma in Business Administration or CA or ICWA with Minimum 60% (55% for SC/ ST/PWD) aggregate marks in class 10th AND Minimum 60% (55% for SC/ ST/PWD) aggregate marks in class 12th OR Minimum 60% aggregate marks in diploma course minimum two years duration after 10th Standard (55% for SC/ ST/PWD) AND Minimum 60% aggregate Marks (55% for SC/ ST/PWD) in Graduation AND CA or ICWA or Minimum 60% aggregate marks (55% for SC/ ST/PWD) in Post Graduate Degree / Diploma in Business Administration., 3 years experience, Age : 25-35 years as on 31/08/2010. Relaxation as per rules., Pay Scale : starting basic pay of Rs. 25700/- in the scale of Rs. 25700-800/5-29700-900/2-31500

Special Technical Executive : 60 posts (SC-9, ST-4, OBC-17, UR-30) (PH-1), Qualification : B.E./ B.Tech/ B.Sc.(Engineering) in Mechanical OR Chemical /Pharma / Bio Tech OR Electrical/ Electronics / IT OR Textile OR Food Technology OR Metallurgy with Minimum 60% (55% for SC/ ST/PWD) aggregate marks in class 10th AND Minimum 60% (55% for SC/ ST/PWD) aggregate marks in class 12th OR Minimu 60% aggregate marks in diploma course (minimum two year duration) after 10th Standard (55% for SC/ ST/PWD) AND Minimum 60% aggregate marks (55% for SC/ ST/PWD) in B. E. / B. Tech / B.Sc (Engineering) in the following streams : Mechanical or Chemical / Pharma / Biotech or Electrical / Electronics / I T or Textile or Food Technology or Metallurgy only., 3 years experiecne, Age : 25-35 years as on 31/08/2010. Relaxation as per rules., Pay Scale : starting basic pay of Rs. 25700/- in the scale of Rs. 25700- 800/5-29700-900/2-31500

Application Fee : Rs.500/- (Rs.50/- for SC/ST/PWD). Candidates are required to go to any CBS Branch of State Bank of India and pay the amount of prescribes fees and get receipt from the branch.

How to Apply: Apply Online at SBI web site from 26/07/2010 to 31/08/2010.

Kindly visit Recruitment section at http://sbi.co.in/ for detailed information plus payment fee voucher copy. and a link to apply online.

Punjab and Sind Bank Clerk Exam: Solved Paper (Held on 23-5-2010)

2010-07-18T21:06:00.000-07:00

Punjab and Sind Bank Clerk Exam., 2010

(Held on 23-5-2010 )

English Language : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1 to 15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once upon a time, there lived a robber in a village. One day, he stole a temple bell and ran towards the forest. A Tiger heard the jingle of the bell and became curious to locate the sound. As soon as he saw the robber, he jumped upon him and killed him at once. The bell fell on the ground. After a few days, a group of monkeys passed through that way. They spotted the bell and carried it to their home in the forest.

They found the jingle of the bell very interesting. Subsequently every one of them became very fond of the bell and started playing with it. After every tiring day, the monkeys would sit on the top of a hill in the forest in the night and enjoy the melodious sound of the bell. The people of the village were afraid of the noise. Soon afterwards, the people from the village found the body of the robber and proclaimed, “Certainly there is an evil spirit around here that kills human beings and then rings the bell to celebrate”.

When the people heard this, they thought that a demon was haunting their village. Without giving any second thought, people started leaving the village in terror and settling in a new place. However, there was an intelligent and bold woman in that village. She thought to herself, “I don’t believe that a demon is haunting this village. I will find out who is ringing the bell”. Late in the night, she went into the forest bravely and found that a group of monkeys was playing about and ringing the bell.

Now as the woman knew the secret of the bell, she went to the King and said, “Your Majesty ! I’m sure there is no evil spirit in the village and the cause of all the trouble lies somewhere else. If you grant me some money, I will get rid of it and bring happiness to the village.” The King, who was also terrified of the hoax that prevailed in the village, granted the request of the woman.

The woman bought as much peas, groundnuts and fruits with that money as she could. She went into the forest, made a circle under a tree on the ground, placed all the eatables and hid herself at some distance. She kept a watch on the monkeys from a distance.

As and when the monkeys saw the eatables, they dropped the bell just as the old woman had expected of them. They ran to pick the eatables. The woman picked up the bell quickly and rushed towards the village. She gave the bell in the court of the King. The King was happy with the brave woman and everyone in the village admired her bravery. The pleased King rewarded the woman for her bravery. Since that day there was no sound of the bell in the village. People returned to their village and lived happily ever after.

1. What did the group of monkeys do with the bell ?
(A) They used it to scare away the villagers
(B) They enjoyed its pleasant sound every night
(C) They returned it to the temple
(D) They gave it to the king as they feared him
(E) None of these

2. Why did the villagers move out of the village in search of a new place ?
(A) They were scared of frequent attacks of the maneating tiger
(B) They were terrified of the king as he was an evil person
(C) The village was cursed by Gods as the villagers could not find the lost bell of the temple
(D) They were fed up of frequent robberies in the village
(E) None of these

3. Why did the woman from the village go to the forest late in the night ?
(A) To find out who was ringing the bell every night in the forest
(B) To request the demon to leave the village and live somewhere else
(C) In order to hide from the demon present in the village
(D) To hunt down the evil monkeys who had been killing human beings
(E) None of these

4. How did the robber who stole the bell from the temple die ?
(A) As the bell belonged to a temple, he was cursed by Gods and died
(B) The group of monkeys killed him in order to take the bell from him
(C) A tiger in the forest spotted the rober due to the ringing bell and killed him
(D) The king had ordered the woman to find the robber and kill him
(E) None of these

5. What did the villagers presume after finding the dead robber ?
(A) That monkeys in the forest had been killing human beings
(B) That an evil spirit had been killing human beings and haunting the village
(C) That there was a man-eating tiger in the forest
(D) That the man had been killed of a curse as he had stolen a temple’s bell
(E) None of these

6. Why is the woman referred to as intelligent and bold in the given story ?
(A) She was the only one in the entire village who had dared to confront the evil king
(B) She killed the troublesome group of monkeys all by herself
(C) She fooled the king and drew out a substantial amount of money from him
(D) She was not frightened of the hoax and was brave enough to find out the truth behind it
(E) None of these

7. Why did the woman ask for some money from the king ?
(A) She needed money for moving away from the haunted village
(B) In order to buy eatables to attract the monkeys
(C) To pay the demon in exchange for leaving the village
(D) In order to buy a new bell for the temple and end God’s curse
(E) None of these

8. Which of the following is true in context of the passage ?
(A) The king of the village bravely fought against the robber and killed him
(B) The monkeys informed the tiger that a robber had entered the forest
(C) Finally, all the villagers returned to their homes
(D) There was an evil spirit in the village which killed human beings
(E) None is true

9. Why did the monkeys drop the bell before the woman picked it up and took it to the village ?
(A) They wanted to collect all the eatables kept under the tree
(B) The woman threatened them to drop the bell or face the consequences
(C) They were scared as the king had ordered them to return the bell to the temple
(D) The tiger threatened to kill them if they refused to return his bell
(E) None of these

10. Which of the following best describes the woman as mentioned in the passage ?
(A) Evil
(B) Cruel
(C) Superstitious
(D) Generous
(E) Courageous

Directions–(Q. 11 to 13) Choose the word/group of words which is/are most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. SPOTTED
(A) Patched
(B) Supplied
(C) Spoiled
(D) Noticed
(E) Provided

12. GRANT
(A) Assign
(B) Reward
(C) Give
(D) Generate
(E) Request

13. WATCH
(A) Observation
(B) Impression
(C) Record
(D) Period
(E) Timepiece

Directions–(Q. 14 and 15) Choose the word/group of words which is/ are most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. DROPPED
(A) Selected
(B) Raised
(C) Increased
(D) Maintained
(E) Picked up

15. ADMIRED
(A) Neglected
(B) Criticised
(C) Disagreed
(D) Punished
(E) Feared

Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

16. I looked everywhere as my keys, but I couldn’t figure out where I had put them.
(A) For my key
(B) As mine keys
(C) For my keys
(D) Finding my key
(E) No correction required

17. The new restaurant is doing good business becaue it serves food of good quality at lower rates than other restaurants in the area.
(A) Of serving food in
(B) It serves food for
(C) They serve food of
(D) It serves food in
(E) No correction required

18. The president was extremely popular on the world stage but is dislike in his own country.
(A) But was disliked
(B) Rather is disliked
(C) Because of dislike
(D) But is liked
(E) No correction required

19. In an attempt to change its oldfashioned image, the newspaper must created a section aimed at younger leaders.
(A) Will create few
(B) Is creating few
(C) Should creates a
(D) Has created a
(E) No correction required

20. As her neighbour have loud parties every night, she does not complain. She prefers to put up with it—
(A) Because her neighbour
(B) Even though her neighbours
(C) Despite of neighbours
(D) Instead of her neighbour
(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 21 to 25) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either mis-spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all t h e words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. Drivers (A) who exceed (B) the speed limit (C) are duly find (D) by the traffic police personnel. All correct (E)

22. This project (A) is in its final faze (B) of completion and is expected (C) to be ready (D) by the end of this year. All correct (E)

23. The bored (A) of governors meets (B) once every month to discuss (C) the organisation’s policy. (D) All correct (E)

24. There was a slight (A) reduction (B) in his wait (C) after almost a week (D) of strict dieting. All correct (E)

25. He has not been able to attend (A) the office (B) for last four (C) days because he is suffering (D) from fever. All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) He instructed his stable master to give him the fastest of all the horses he had.
(2) Akbar was embarrassed and in turn gifted the Sage a horse cart and made the stable master its driver in order to punish him.
(3) After a few days Akbar saw the Sage walking again and asked him where the horse was.
(4) Once Akbar saw a sage walking and decided to gift him a horse.
(5) The Sage answered “My Lord, the horse gifted to me was so fast that it crossed the distance
from earth to heaven in one night.”
(6) However, it so happened that the stable master gave him a frail and sick horse which died the
same night it was gifted to the Sage.

26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 6
(E) 5

28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6

29. Which of the folloiwng should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 2
(E) 6

30. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6

Directions—(Q. 31 to 35) In each of the following questions six words are given which are denoted by (1), (2), (3) (4), (5) and (6). By using all the six words, each only once, you have to frame a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. The correct order of words is the answer. Choose from the five alternatives, the one having the correct order of words and mark it as your answer on the answersheet.

31. (1) WAS
(2) HER
(3) IMPRESSED
(4) I
(5) HONESTY
(6) BY
(A) 412635
(B) 615324
(C) 316425
(D) 413625
(E) 642351

32. (1) ABANDON
(2) WE
(3) SHIP
(4) TO
(5) THE
(6) HAD
(A) 264153
(B) 213645
(C) 261354
(D) 546132
(E) 513642

33. (1) TO
(2) WAS
(3) LEAVE
(4) IMMEDIATELY
(5) TOLD
(6) SHE
(A) 621543
(B) 351642
(C) 164253
(D) 351624
(E) 625134

34. (1) WEATHER
(2) TODAY
(3) IS
(4) HOT
(5) THE
(6) VERY
(A) 416352
(B) 513642
(C) 512436
(D) 541632
(E) 412356

35. (1) IGNORED
(2) WARNING
(3) MANY
(4) SIGNS
(5) PEOPLE
(6) THE
(A) 351462
(B) 326154
(C) 351624
(D) 254361
(E) 261345

Directions—(Q. 36 to 40) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

36. Sadly, tomorrow’s cricket match will have to be …………… due to bad weather.
(A) played
(B) unorganised
(C) cancelled
(D) won
(E) rained

37. The dumping of waste products is carefully done by the company in order to ………… any harm to the environment.
(A) avoid
(B) cause
(C) expect
(D) intend
(E) do

38. No matter where that prisoner tries to …………, the police will find him sooner or later.
(A) imprison
(B) arrest
(C) find
(D) stops
(E) hide

39. I do not know where Neha lives because we have been ………… of touch for quite some time.
(A) not
(B) out
(C) hardly
(D) never
(E) ever

40. It is a shame that many people in the world have to live …… basic necessities such as food and shelter.
(A) along
(B) including
(C) despite
(D) without
(E) short

Directions—(Q. 41 to 50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Once upon a time there lived a Brahmin. He was …(41)… for his miserliness. Every day, he would go out begging and save some flour people gave him as alms. He …(42)… the flour in an earthen pot. When it was full he hung the pot to a peg above his bed so that he could keep an …(43)… on it.

One day he returned home very tired and immediately fell …(44)… and began dreaming : “This pot is full of flour and if there is a famine it would …(45)… me a very high price. With that money. I will buy a big herd of goats. I will sell them for a huge …(46)… and buy cows with that money. Then I will buy buffaloes and later horses. And, when the stables are full of horses I will sell them and buy lots of gold.”

“With this gold, I will build a huge house with four floors. Seeing my riches one Brahmin will offer the hand of his beautiful daughter to me. I will play with my children. I will go and hide in the stable and call out to them to look for me. But when they drift dangerously …(47)… to the horses, I will pick up a stick and throw it towards the horses to distract them and save my children. I will become a hero in my wife’s eyes. While …(48)… he picked a stick lying close to him and sprung it towards the pot. The stick …(49)… the pot hanging from the peg and …(50)… all its contents over his body. He now looked like a white ghost.

41. (A) respected
(B) begging
(C) proud
(D) upset
(E) known

42. (A) ate
(B) stored
(C) hung
(D) threw
(E) kneaded

43. (A) watch
(B) attention
(C) observation
(D) eye
(E) attachment

44. (A) down
(B) badly
(C) asleep
(D) resting
(E) lying

45. (A) fetch
(B) profit
(C) sell
(D) gain
(E) exchange

46. (A) money
(B) loss
(C) wealth
(D) profit
(E) cash

47. (A) near
(B) close
(C) towards
(D) attached
(E) front

48. (A) playing
(B) riding
(C) beating
(D) saving
(E) dreaming

49. (A) wasted
(B) burst
(C) shattered
(D) spread
(E) injured

50. (A) spilled
(B) fell
(C) stored
(D) poured
(E) release

Answers :
1. (B) 2. (E) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (E)
11. (D)12. (C)13. (A) 14. (E) 15. (B) 16. (C)17. (E) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (B)
21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (E) 26. (D)27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (E)
31. (D)32. (A) 33. (E) 34. (B) 35. (C) 36. (C)37. (A) 38. (E) 39. (B) 40. (D)
41. (E) 42. (B)43. (D) 44. (C) 45. (A) 46. (D)47. (B) 48. (E) 49. (C) 50. (A)

Corporation Bank Recruitment - 1250 Clerk Posts

2010-07-05T19:53:00.000-07:00

Corporation Bank Recruitment - 1250 Clerk Posts

Corporation bank is one of the leading & oldest public sector banks in India. Present across India, the bank has over 1100 networked branches & around 1100 ATMs.As part of recruitment 2010-11, Corporation bank is recruiting 1250 clerks.

Position : Clerk
Vacancies : 1250 (State-wise)
Payscale : Rs.9500

Dates : Online Registration : 01.07.2010 to 31.07.2010
Written Examination : 12.09.2010

Eligibility : Candidates interested to apply for clerk post in Corporation bank ,

* Age Limit : 18 - 28 years as on 1.06.2010
* Degree in any discipline with 40% or more from recog. university,
* Should be able to read/write/speak official language of the state applied.
* Knowledge of computers is also essential.

Selection : The recruitment for Corporation bank clerk recruitment has Written test & Interview. The Written exam has 4 objective papers & those with high marks will be called for Interview.Shortlisted candidates from the objective test shall have to appear for Computer literacy test.

Application : Candidates have to pay Rs.50(SC/ST) & Rs.200(all others) at any of the corporation bank branches before 31.07.2010, using the payment challan given at the website. After payment, application has to be submitted through the website www.corpbank.in mentioning your payment and personal details.Note down the generated Registration number & Password for future use.

>> Candidates can download the application, payment challan & apply online for Corporation bank clerk recruitment at the bank website here

आगामी प्रतियोगिता परीक्षाएं 2011

2010-07-04T09:34:00.000-07:00

● 9 जनवरी – यूनियन बैंक ऑफ इण्डिया प्रोबेशनरी अधिकारियों व अन्य अधिकारियों की भर्ती परीक्षा
● 9 जनवरी – एस.एस.सी. स्टेनोग्राफर (ग्रेड ‘सी’ एवं ‘डी’) पुनर्परीक्षा–2010
● 9 जनवरी – ओरिएण्टल बैंक ऑफ कॉमर्स लिपिकीय भर्ती परीक्षा
● 16 जनवरी – मध्य प्रदेश सहायक संचालक/ जिला सांख्यिकी अधिकारी परीक्षा–2009
● 16 जनवरी – कॉर्पोरेशन बैंक ऑफीसर्स संवर्ग परीक्षा
● 16 जनवरी – पंजाब एण्ड सिंध बैंक प्रोबेशनरी ऑफीसर्स (स्केल-I) परीक्षा
● 16 जनवरी – स्टेट बैंक ऑफ इण्डिया के सहयोगी बैंकों में लिपिकीय भर्ती परीक्षा
● 17 जनवरी – मध्य प्रदेश पुलिस दूरसंचार संगठन, भोपाल आरक्षक (रेडियो) ऑपरेटर परीक्षा
● 23 जनवरी – आई.डी.बी.आई. बैंक एक्जीक्यूटिव्स भर्ती परीक्षा
● 23 जनवरी – पंजाब एण्ड सिन्ध बैंक विशेषज्ञ अधिकारी परीक्षा
● 23 जनवरी – मध्य भारत ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफीसर स्केल-I परीक्षा
● 30 जनवरी – मध्य प्रदेश पुलिस आरक्षक भर्ती परीक्षा
● 30 जनवरी – मध्य प्रदेश में उच्चतर माध्यमिक विद्यालयों में प्राचार्यों की भर्ती परीक्षा
● 30 जनवरी – नेशनल इंश्योरेंस कम्पनी लि. एडमिनिस्ट्रेटिव ऑफीसर (स्केल-I) परीक्षा
● 30 जनवरी – यूको बैंक प्रोबेशनरी अधिकारियों की भर्ती परीक्षा
● 30 जनवरी – मध्य भारत ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफिस असिस्टेंट परीक्षा
● 30 जनवरी – GATE 2011 ऑनलाइन परीक्षा (पेपर्स : GG एवं TF, AE एवं MN)
● 30 जनवरी – उत्तर प्रदेश समीक्षा अधिकारी/सहायक समीक्षा अधिकारी आदि सामान्य चयन (प्रा.) परीक्षा–2010
● 30 जनवरी – पंजाब एण्ड सिंध बैंक लिपिकीय संवर्ग भर्ती परीक्षा
● 6 फरवरी – जवाहर नवोदय विद्यालय प्रवेश परीक्षा (कक्षा VI)
● 6 फरवरी – उत्तर प्रदेश उच्च न्यायालय सहायक समीक्षा अधिकारी (प्रा.) परीक्षा
● 6 फरवरी – भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक B ग्रेड अधिकारियों की भर्ती परीक्षा
● 6 फरवरी – यूनियन बैंक लिपिकीय संवर्ग परीक्षा
● 11 फरवरी – केन्द्रीय विद्यालय संगठन पोस्ट ग्रेजुएट टीचर (प्रा.) परीक्षा
● 12 फरवरी – केन्द्रीय विद्यालय संगठन प्रशिक्षित स्नातक शिक्षक एवं लाइब्रेरियन, प्राइमरी शिक्षक (प्रा.) परीक्षा
● 13 फरवरी – सेन्ट्रल बैंक ऑफ इण्डिया लिपिकीय संवर्ग भर्ती परीक्षा
● 13 फरवरी – आसाम ग्रामीण विकास बैंक ऑफिस असिस्टेंट परीक्षा
● 13 फरवरी – GATE 2011 ऑफलाइन परीक्षा (पेपर्स : AR, BT, CE, CH, CS, ME, PH एवं PL, AG, CY, EC, EE, IN, MA, MT, XE एवं XL)
● 13 फरवरी – संघ लोक सेवा आयोग सम्मिलित रक्षा सेवा परीक्षा (I), 2011
● 13 व 20 फरवरी – उत्तर प्रदेश प्रशिक्षित स्नातक शिक्षक भर्ती परीक्षा
● 20 फरवरी – बड़ौदा राजस्थान ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफीसर स्केल-I एवं स्केल-II परीक्षा
● 20 फरवरी – आसाम ग्रामीण विकास बैंक ऑफिसर जूनियर मैनेजमेंट (स्केल-I) परीक्षा
● 20 फरवरी – मध्य प्रदेश राज्य सेवा (प्रा.) परीक्षा–2010
● 20 फरवरी – छत्तीसगढ़ ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफीसर स्केल-I परीक्षा
● 27 फरवरी – एस.एस.सी. मल्टी टास्किंग (गैर-तकनीकी) स्टाफ भर्ती परीक्षा-2011
● 27 फरवरी – देना बैंक प्रोबेशनरी ऑफीसर्स भर्ती परीक्षा
● 27 फरवरी – छत्तीसगढ़ ग्रामीण बैंक कार्यालय सहायकों की भर्ती परीक्षा
● 27 फरवरी – बड़ौदा राजस्थान ग्रामीण बैंक कार्यालय सहायकों की भर्ती परीक्षा
● 27 फरवरी – एल.आई.सी. असिस्टेंट एडमिनिस्ट्रेटिव ऑफीसर (जनरलिस्ट/चार्टर्ड एकाउन्टेंट्‌स/कम्पनी सेक्रेटरी/लीगल) परीक्षा
● फरवरी – वायुसैनिक भर्ती परीक्षा ग्रुप 'X' (तकनीकी ट्रेड)
● 6 मार्च – बड़ौदा उत्तर प्रदेश ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफीसर (स्केल-I) परीक्षा
● 6 मार्च – देना बैंक क्लेरिकल कैडर परीक्षा
● 6 मार्च – राजस्थान ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफीसर्स भर्ती परीक्षा
● 13 मार्च – बड़ौदा उत्तर प्रदेश ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफिस असिस्टेंट क्लेरिकल कैडर परीक्षा
● 13 मार्च – बैंक ऑफ बड़ौदा प्रोबेशनरी ऑफीसर्स भर्ती परीक्षा (ऑनलाइन अन्तिम तिथि–25 जनवरी, 2011)
● 13 मार्च – उत्तर–पूर्वी राज्यों में बैंक ऑफ इण्डिया क्लर्क परीक्षा
● 13 मार्च – आन्ध्र प्रदेश ग्रामीण विकास बैंक कार्यालय सहायकों की भर्ती परीक्षा (ऑनलाइन अन्तिम तिथि–14 जनवरी, 2011)
● 13 मार्च – राजस्थान ग्रामीण बैंक कार्यालय सहायकों/सह-रोकड़िया भर्ती परीक्षा
● 27 मार्च – जूनियर इंजीनियर (सिविल एवं इलेक्ट्रिकल) परीक्षा-2011 (अन्तिम तिथि–31 जनवरी, 2011)
● मार्च-अप्रैल – भारतीय नौसेना सीनियर सेकण्डरी रिक्रूटमेंट परीक्षा
● 3 अप्रैल – सीबीएसई अखिल भारतीय प्री-मेडिकल एवं प्री-डेंटल प्रवेश परीक्षा-2011
● 8 अप्रैल – केन्द्रीय विद्यालय संगठन पोस्ट ग्रेजुएट टीचर (मुख्य) परीक्षा
● 9 अप्रैल – केन्द्रीय विद्यालय संगठन प्रशिक्षित स्नातक शिक्षक एवं लाइब्रेरियन, प्राइमरी शिक्षक (मुख्य) परीक्षा
● 10 अप्रैल – बलिया-इटावा क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंक अधिकारियों की भर्ती परीक्षा (ऑनलाइन अन्तिम तिथि–25 जनवरी, 2011)
● 10 अप्रैल – आई. आई. टी. संयुक्त प्रवेश परीक्षा-2011
● 17 अप्रैल – बलिया-इटावा क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंक कार्यालय सहायकों की भर्ती परीक्षा (ऑनलाइन अन्तिम तिथि–25 जनवरी, 2011)
● अप्रैल-मई – राजस्थान उपनिरीक्षक पुलिस संयुक्त प्रतियोगी परीक्षा-2010
● 15 मई – सीबीएसई अखिल भारतीय प्री-मेडिकल एवं प्री-डेंटल मुख्य परीक्षा-2011

Allahabad Bank Clerk Exam, 2010 (Held on 14-3-2010) : English Language

2010-07-01T07:51:00.000-07:00

Allahabad Bank Clerk Exam., 2010
English Language : Solved Paper

[Held on 14-3-2010(First Shift)]

Directions—(Q. 1 to 15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

In a village in the East, there lived an old couple. They did not have any children and never spent an extra paisa on themselves. They never repaired their house or cooked good food. One day, a family moved into the village, it was their son’s second birthday and they sent two delicious laddoos to the old couple. The couple ate the laddoos with great relish. For days after they could talk of nothing else. Finally the old man could take it no more. He said to his wife, “Let’s buy the ingredients to make just two laddoos.” His wilfe agreed but said, “If I make the laddoos at home, the neighbours will know and will want a share. Let’s cook in the woods behind our hut. That way no one will ever know.”

The next day the old man purchased the ingredients from the market and they set off to the woods. Having never prepared food like this before, they ended up with three laddoos instead of two. The old couple returned home with the sweets, dying to eat them. But there was a problem. “It was my idea and I went to the market, so I ought to get two,” said the old man. But his wife refused to give in so easily and said, “Since I prepared the sweets. I ought to have two.” The day wore on and the argument continued.

At last, the old man suggested, “Let us not talk to each other. Whoever breaks the silence first will get one laddoo and the other person two.” His wife agreed. Hours passed, but neither of them spoke and finally they fell asleep with the bowl of sweets between them. That evening one of the neighbours knocked on the door but the couple did not answer for fear of losing the bet. Peering through the window, the man saw the couple lying on the floor with an untouched bowl of food. “They are dead !” he shouted and alerted the other villagers. Soon the door was broken down and the house was swarming with villagers. They discussed everything from the funeral to where the couple had hidden their wealth. But the couple lay still.

Finally, the villagers carried them to the cremation ground. As the flames licked his feet, the old man jumped up screaming “You win !” His wife jumped up too, happy that she had won. The two then rushed home leaving the bewildered villagers present there behind. But when they got home…Alas the door had been left open and they found a stray dog licking the last crumbs of the sweets from the bowl.

1. Why did the old couple cook in the woods ?
(A) It was very convenient to gather firewood
(B) To avoid the risk of their hut burning down
(C) To keep the fact that they were preparing laddoos a secret from their neighbours
(D) To hide the fact that they did not know how to prepare laddoos from their neighbours
(E) They did not have the ingredients to make enough laddoos for their neighbours as well
Ans : (C)

2. What caused the old couple’s sudden longing for laddoos ?
(A) They hadn’t eaten good food for several days
(B) They had attended their neighbour’s party and enjoyed the laddoos served
(C) They saw the mouth watering laddoos being served to guests at the party
(D) They had tasted the laddoos prepared for their neighbour’s son’s birthday
(E) They thought that the laddoos would satisfy their hunger for days to come
Ans : (D)

3. Why did the old couple initially not reveal that they were alive to the villagers ?
(A) To learn the villagers’ true opinion of them
(B) They did not like the villagers and were mocking them
(C) Neither of them wanted to be the first to speak and lose the bet
(D) To test the honesty of the villagers
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)

4. What did the old couple disagree about ?
(A) Where they would cook their meal
(B) Which of them was entitled to the first laddoo
(C) Whether to share the extra laddoo with their neighbours
(D) The quantity of laddoos that they had made
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

5. What was the villager’s reaction to the old couple’s presumed ‘death’ ?
(A) They were upset and all came to pay their last respects
(B) They were worried about how to pay for the funeral
(C) They could not decide what to do with the couple’s wealth
(D) They disliked the old couple and demolished their house
(E) They dutifully arranged the couple’s last rites
Ans : (E)

6. Why did the neighbour peep into the old couple’s house ?
(A) To learn what they were being so secretive about
(B) To spy on them and discover where their wealth was hidden
(C) To complain as they had cooked in the forest
(D) To check up on the old couple as he did everyday
(E) Not clearly mentioned in the passage
Ans : (E)

7. Which of the following can be said about the old couple ?
(A) They did not have any relatives to look after them in their old age
(B) They were misers and did not spend even on keeping their house in good condition
(C) They were not allowed to eat sweets as they were old
(D) They were fond of animals and sometimes shared their food with stray animals
(E) They were afraid of the villagers and hid from them
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following is/are TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(1) The old woman had prepared more laddoos than she had intended
(2) The family who had recently moved into the village were fond of the old couple
(3) The villagers were saddened by the death of the old couple and gave them a grand funeral
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2) & (3)
(C) Only (1) & (2)
(D) All (1), (2) & (3)
(E) None of the above
Ans : (A)

9. What puzzled the villagers?
(A) The old couple did not die in the fire
(B) The sight of the old couple whom they had presumed dead, alive
(C) The fact that the old couple had wasted good food
(D) The lack of concern the old woman had for her husband
(E) The old couple fed the laddoos to the dog.
Ans : (B)

10. Why did the old man scream when surrounded by the villagers ?
(A) He was afraid that his wife would get burned
(B) To scare away the villagers who wanted to kill him for his money
(C) His wife refused to allow him to eat more than one laddoo
(D) To indicate to the villagers that he was alive
(E) The fear of being hurt in the fire
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 11 to 13) Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage.

11. breaks
(A) interrupts
(B) separates
(C) solves
(D) defeats
(E) escapes
Ans : (A)

12. passed
(A) overtook
(B) occupied
(C) unnoticed
(D) proceeded
(E) succeeded
Ans : (E)

13. share
(A) half
(B) part
(C) participate
(D) divide
(E) common
Ans : (B)

Directions–(Q. 14 and 15) Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage.

14. last
(A) new
(B) begin
(C) constant
(D) discontinue
(E) first
Ans : (E)

15. still
(A) restless
(B) noisily
(C) conscious
(D) calmly
(E) lifeless
Ans : (A)

Directions–(16 to 25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/ error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the letter of the part with error as your answer. If there is ‘No error’, mark (E)

16. If his aim is to (A) / buy a house in the (B) / next three years he (C) / should start immediate saving. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

17. Can you explain why (A) / you were late this morning (B) / when we had to make (C) / such an important presentation ? (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

18. Their company is going to incur (A) / heavy losses this year because (B) / of the big discounts they (C) / offers to customers. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

19. The main advantage of (A) / investing such schemes (B) / is that you will not (C) / have to pay any taxes. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

20. The final decision can (A) / be taken only after (B) / we consider all (C) / the panel suggestions. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

21. The Foreign Investment Promotion Board is (A) / the government body who (B) / regulates investment received (C) / by Indian factories from foreign countries. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

22. Our company was recently (A) / award the contract (B) / to construct two major (C) / bridges in the state. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

23. That customer has (A) / written a letter (B) / thanks the manager (C) / for her timely help. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

24. Accordingly the circular (A) / that was issued yesterday RBI (B) / has raised the rate at (C) / which it lends to banks. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

25. A large number of policy (A) / have lapsed because many (B) / people have not paid (C) / their instalments on time. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

26. The Chairman has promissed (A) to look (B) into the matter (C) and take necessary (D) action. All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

27. Most (A) projects are delayed (B) because of the absents (C) of proper planning. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

28. He found (A) the company in 1980 to provide (B) electricity to people living (C) in rural areas. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

29. Salaries (A) of bank employees (B) are likely (C) to go above (D) by ten percent. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

30. Since (A) the interest rate on bank deposits is low (B) at present, people prefer (C) to deposit their savings (D) in post office schemes. All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 31 to 40) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

A rich merchant owned a beautiful horse. Now, one of his neighbours was keen to (31) this horse. He offered the merchant gold, (32) the merchant refused. This angered the neighbour. He (33) to trick the merchant. He disguised himself (34) a beggar and lay down at the (35) of the road, that the merchant used everyday. (36) at the sad plight of the beggar, he (37) from his horse and gently lifted the beggar (38) his horse. No sooner did the beggar get into the (39) than the galloped away. But hearing the merchant (40) out to him, he stopped when he was a safe distance away. “Please don’t tell anyone how you came to possess this horse. Some day an ill man may be lying by the roadside and people who have heard about your trick, may not want to help,’’ said the merchant. The merchant’s neighbour was deeply ashamed, rode back and returned the horse to the merchant.

31. (A) buy
(B) steal
(C) free
(D) train
(E) sell
Ans : (A)

32. (A) so
(B) unless
(C) otherwise
(D) but
(E) since
Ans : (D)

33. (A) desires
(B) decided
(C) declined
(D) deliberately
(E) deceived
Ans : (B)

34. (A) being
(B) alike
(C) as
(D) identical
(E) similar
Ans : (C)

35. (A) middle
(B) gutter
(C) ending
(D) distance
(E) side
Ans : (E)

36. (A) Carefully
(B) Distressed
(C) Misery
(D) Upsetting
(E) Unhappily
Ans : (B)

37. (A) stepped
(B) jump
(C) fell
(D) dismounted
(E) climbed
Ans : (D)

38. (A) with
(B) above
(C) from
(D) off
(E) onto
Ans : (E)

39. (A) saddle
(B) arms
(C) horse
(D) danger
(E) way
Ans : (A)

40. (A) appeal
(B) shouted
(C) call
(D) cried
(E) beg
Ans : (C)

Baroda Rajasthan Gramin Bank Officers Exam, 2010 : English Language : Solved Paper

2010-06-19T20:57:00.000-07:00

Baroda Rajasthan Gramin Bank Officers Exam., 2010
Held on 21-02-2010
English Language : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Evidence is growing that relatively cheap policies like climate engineering and non-carbon energy research could effectively prevent suffering from global warming, both in the short and long term. Unfortunately, political leaders gathering at a special meeting of the United Nations in New York will focus on a very different response. They will make many of the most important decisions on how to respond to climate change over the next decade. They are expected to thrash out political disputes like how much carbon rich and poor nations should agree to cut.

We have failed to rein in emission rises despite sincere and well-meaning promises made in Kyoto in 1997 and earlier, because carbon cuts are expensive to enact. Research by climate economists show that significant carbon cuts could cost a staggering 12•9% of global GDP in 2100. Available estimates show that for each dollar spent on global carbon cuts, we buy two cents worth of avoided climate damage. The solution is far more costly than the problem. Thus a global deal based around carbon cuts is expected to include a lot of spending from rich countries to help poor nations to prepare for global warming. Developed countries too apparently seem to have no problems in spending much money to save few lives in the distant future, instead of combating malnutrition, malaria, or communicable diseases today. It is amoral to build a dam to avoid flooding in 100 years, when the people living beside that dam are starving today.

Imagine if we could fix climate for the next hundred years for less than what a single country spends on climate research in a year. Climate engineering has the potential to do just that. One can explore the costs and benefits of so-called marine cloud whitening, a well-established techproposal in which seawater droplets would be sprayed into clouds above the sea to make them reflect more sunlight back into space thus augmenting the natural process where sea salt helps to provide tiny particles for clouds to form around. About $9 billion spent developing this technology might be able to cancel out this century’s global warming. The benefits from preventing the temperature increase would add up to about $20 trillion. We should research this technology today to identify its limitations, risks and potential so that it could buy us a century’s delay in warming.

But this will not be sufficient because we need better non-carbonbased technology options. Non-fossil sources like nuclear, wind, solar and geothermal energy will get us quite some way towards the path of stable carbon emissions.

Policy makers should abandon carbon-reduction negotiations and make agreements to seriously invest in research and development. As research spending would be much cheaper than carbon-emission cuts, there would be a much higher chance of political agreement, and a much higher probability of the promises being enacted. We have within our grasp alternative policy options that would truly leave the planet in a better state.

1. Why have past efforts to reduce carbon emissions failed ?
(A) Scientists were not interested in this field of research
(B) Global warming was not considered as a problem by the U.N.
(C) The cost of accomplishing this was too high
(D) Poor nations did not have the necessary knowledge to reduce carbon emissions
(E) None of these

2. Which of the following is a characteristic of climate engineering ?
(A) It is beneficial in the short term and also in the long term
(B) It can only be adopted by poor countries
(C) It has worsened problems like poverty and hunger in developing countries
(D) It is seen as less cost effective than other ways of reducing pollution
(E) It uses technology which pollutes the environment

3. According to the author, which of the following is/are the outcome/s of the meeting of world leaders in New York ?
(1) A resolution that carbon emissions will be reduced through climate engineering.
(2) Successful settlement of many conflicts regarding reduction of emissions.
(3) Developed countries have volunteered to spend over 12 per cent of their GDP on preventing global warming.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) All (1), (2) and (3)
(E) None of these

4. What does the author want to convey through the phrase ‘Nonfossil sources like nuclear, wind, solar and geothermal energy will get us quite some way towards the path of stable carbon emissions’ as given in the passage ?
(A) All countries should use non fossil sources of energy to be able to achieve high carbon emissions
(B) The use of non fossil sources of energy will be able to check the carbon emissions
(C) Non fossil sources of fuel may actually increase carbon emissions
(D) If we use such non fossil fuels, it will take a long time to reduce carbon emissions
(E) None of these

5. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?
(A) Carbon emissions of poor countries are higher than those of rich ones
(B) Construction of dams is directly responsible for the starvation of millions
(C) The earth is in danger of extinction in a century
(D) There is a lack of consensus between rich and poor nations on the issue of reducing carbon emissions
(E) Countries have to spend a substantial amount of their GDP on climate change

6. What is the author’s opinion about agreement among countries in Kyoto ?
(A) Countries which signed this agreement had no intention of reducing carbon emissions
(B) The percentage of carbon emissions to be reduced was highest for developing countries
(C) Climate economists should not have supported this agreement
(D) It was a failure because developed countries backed out from the agreement
(E) None of these

7. What is the author’s solution to handling climate change ?
(A) Countries should use more expensive and long lasting ways of reducing carbon emissions
(B) Negotiations on climate change should be between scientists rather than between political leaders
(C) Countries should increase expenditure on research into ways of handling climate change
(D) The U.N. should finance climate research in developing countries
(E) Introduce economic sanctions against countries which do not reduce carbon emissions

8. Which of the following will be a suitable title for the given passage ?
(A) Risks of global warming
(B) The depletion of fossil fuel reserves
(C) Technology can fight global warming
(D) Global warming and decreasing GDPs
(E) The inefficient non carbon sources of energy

9. What is the author’s aim in promoting research into ‘marine cloud whitening’ ?
(A) To better understand how such technology can be utilized as an efficient solution to the problem of global warming
(B) To ensure that the climate scientists benefit financially
(C) To give developing nations an advantage over developed nations in fighting global warming
(D) To highlight the risks of such techniques
(E) To delay agreements on global warming for as long as possible

10. According to the author, what role will the rich nations play in reducing carbon emissions ?
(A) Pressurising poor nations to sign agreements on carbon cuts
(B) Funding carbon emission cuts in developing countries
(C) Diverting research funding from disease prevention to environment protection
(D) Spending trillions of dollars annually on non carbon energy research
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. BUY
(A) Accept
(B) Pay
(C) Provide
(D) Bargain
(E) Cost

12. STAGGERING
(A) Swaying
(B) Huge
(C) Shaking
(D) Unsteady
(E) Collapsing

13. STATE
(A) Express
(B) Mess
(C) Official
(D) Say
(E) Condition

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. AUGMENTING
(A) Reducing
(B) Growing
(C) Channelising
(D) Criticising
(E) Supplementing

15. COMBATING
(A) Holding
(B) Forgiving
(C) Caring
(D) Supporting
(E) Fighting

Directions—(Q. 16–24) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence, the letter of that part will be the answer. If there is no error, mark (E) as the answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. India demonstrates its supremacy (A) / in space when it successfully (B) / launched its third satellite (C) / into orbit yesterday. (D) No error (E)

17. India needs a value education system (A) /who will inculcate values (B) / among the students and (C) / enrich their personalities. (D) No error (E)

18. Driven by the desire to save trees, (A) / residents of a locality (B) / has started using solar appliances (C) / for their everyday needs. (D) No error (E)

19. A large number of unmanned aircrafts (A) / being used by the military (B) / are suspected of having (C) / unsafe radio links. (D) No error (E)

20. Recent survey shows that (A) / 35 million children in the age group of (B) / 6 to 10 years have never (C) / attended no primary school. (D) No error (E)

21. Coal mines constitute (A) / a major percentage of the (B) / sources which cause damage (C) / on the environment. (D) No error (E)

22. A man who has been (A) / accused of fraud in (B) / an earlier job he will never be (C) / welcome in any other organization. (D) No error (E)

23. Worried about the continuing violence in the city, (A) / much students are set (B) (C) / to migrate to other cities / for higher education. (D) No error (E)

24. Many organizations have been offering (A) / attractive incentives to (B) / their employees in an attempt (C) / to boosting employee retention. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 25–29) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

25. In an attempt to grow economically, India plans to march towards an open economy by opened its doors to global markets.
(A) Open doors towards its
(B) Opening its doors to
(C) Open its doors in
(D) Opening their doors for
(E) No correction required

26. Though poverty is still rampant in India, economic growth and commercial development has served to reduce them substantially over the years.
(A) Has served to reduce it
(B) Is serving to reduce it
(C) Had served to reduce them
(D) Have served to reduce it
(E) No correction required

27. All witnesses of yesterday’s accident has been questioned by the police but none could identify the culprits.
(A) Every witness of yesterday’s
(B) All witnesses for yesterday’s
(C) Most witnesses of yesterday
(D) Many witnesses of yesterday
(E) No correction required

28. In spite of the rapid development of medical science, production of artificial blood has remained a distant dream for many scientists.
(A) Despite of the rapid
(B) As a result of the rapid
(C) In spite of some rapidly
(D) Because of the rapid
(E) No correction required

29. India has millions of job opportunities but there is a serious shortage of educated professionals whom are actually employable.
(A) Those are actually employed
(B) That is actually employed
(C) Who are actually employable
(D) Which is actually employed
(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 30–34) Rearrange the following sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow :
(1) The government too has not left any stone unturned in promoting the ‘go green’ concept among the construction industrialists.
(2) It has succeeded in luring the builders into ‘going green’ by these incentives, thus mutually benefiting the builders as well as the environment.
(3) It means that the construction of their buildings ensures energy efficiency, water conservation and use of recycled and renewable energy sources.
(4) It has offered many attractive packages, subsidies and tax benefits to the builders who follow this concept.
(5) As the construction industry revives from recession and begins to bloom once again, the latest trend to catch the eye of the developers is to ‘go green’.
(6) All these not only have a positive impact on the environment but also prove to be more economical for the builders as well as the residents in the long run.

30. Which of the following sentence should be the FIRST after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

31. Which of the following sentence should be the SECOND after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6

32. Which of the following sentence should be the THIRD after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 6
(E) 3

33. Which of the following sentence should be the FIFTH after rearrangement ?
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6

34. Which of the following sentence should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement ?
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6

Directions—(Q. 35–44) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which best fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.

When we sit down for a meal of market-bought products, we like to think we’re getting a reasonable …(35)… of the body’s nutrient requirements, but studies show that because of our chemical intensive farming, the food that we have, does not …(36)… the vital nutrients that our ancestors enjoyed.

Plants …(37)… with the help of soluble chemical fertilisers get lazy and do not develop the deep, healthy roots systems that pull additional elements out of the …(38)… In addition, the micro-organisms that break down organic matter and minerals to be taken up by plant root are …(39)… by chemical bombardment and violent mechanised manipulation of their environment. Essentially, we’re getting robbed, and having to pay for it in …(40)… health, energy, longevity, and advancing medical bills.

Unfortunately, agriculture’s single-minded focus on increasing …(41)… at any cost over the last half-century created a blind spot where rapid …(42)… of the nutritional quality of our food has occurred. This decline has been observed to be quite …(43)… in some crops but has sadly gone largely …(44)… by scientists, farmers, government and consumers.

35. (A) yield
(B) number
(C) amount
(D) deficiency
(E) strength

36. (A) grow
(B) specify
(C) inhabit
(D) cultivate
(E) contain

37. (A) growing
(B) eaten
(C) suffering
(D) arising
(E) rising

38. (A) pesticides
(B) plants
(C) food
(D) soil
(E) crop

39. (A) increased
(B) absorbed
(C) added
(D) wounded
(E) killed

40. (A) improving
(B) declining
(C) better
(D) simplifying
(E) defective

41. (A) yields
(B) fertilisers
(C) chemicals
(D) quality
(E) soil

42. (A) immigration
(B) improvement
(C) return
(D) progression
(E) deterioration

43. (A) more
(B) inadequate
(C) significant
(D) inferior
(E) resistant

44. (A) improved
(B) unnoticed
(C) eradicated
(D) alarming
(E) unaware

Directions—(Q. 45–50) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

45. The ……… of his crime was a heavy blow as not only did his reputation …… but the business also declined.
(A) punishment, finished
(B) revelation, improve
(C) disclosure, suffer
(D) committing, lost
(E) realisation, hurt

46. The Secretaryship has been …… for a long time as nobody is ……… to undertake duties of the post.
(A) open, reluctant
(B) taken, interested
(C) empty, capable
(D) occupied, volunteered
(E) vacant, willing

47. The innocent man could have easily defendend himself but he ……… to speak as he was ……… of offending his friend.
(A) refused, afraid
(B) decided, unwilling
(C) intended, concerned
(D) declined, inclined
(E) denied, forced

48. ………… use of pesticides, especially DDT has been held responsible for the ……… population of vultures in various states across India.
(A) careless, uncontrolled
(B) multiple, increasing
(C) alarming, distinct
(D) indiscriminate, declining
(E) much, growing

49. Many rebels were mercilessly slain to ………… the rebellion but a few managed to ………… by hiding in woods and marshes.
(A) surpass, evade
(B) end, fight
(C) suppress, escape
(D) incite, run
(E) promote, revolt

50. Agriculture in India ……… over all other sectors because it plays a ………… role in the sociocultural life of its people.
(A) dominates, minor
(B) prevails, vital
(C) important, significant
(D) survives, minimal
(E) beats, critical

Answers :
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (E) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (A)
11. (E) 12. (B) 13. (E) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (E) 20. (D)
21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (B) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (E) 29. (C) 30. (E)
31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (E) 35. (C) 36. (E) 37. (A) 38. (D) 39. (E) 40. (B)
41. (A) 42. (E) 43. (C) 44. (B) 45. (C) 46. (E) 47. (A) 48. (D) 49. (C) 50. (B)

Punjab National Bank Clerk Exam, 4-4-2010 Solved Paper

2010-06-19T08:00:00.000-07:00

Punjab National Bank Clerk Exam., 2010
English Language : Solved Paper
(Held on 4-4-2010)

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once upon a time, there lived an old lion. The lion, the king of the forest had grown old. He became frail and due to this, he could not hunt for food. With each passing day he became more and more weak. He realized that he would not live for long if it continued like that. He thought how could he arrange for his food ? After pondering over it for quite some time, he decided that he should have an assistant.

The lion thought that a fox would be the best person to handle this position as he was intelligent and clever. He summoned the fox and said, “Dear friend, I have always liked you because you are smart. I want to appoint you as my minister and advise me on all the affairs of the forest”. The old lion also asked the fox, that since he was the king of the forest, he should not have to hunt for his food. With respect to this, the fox’s first duty as minister was to bring him an animal to eat every day. The fox could not refuse the king and accepted the offer.

After the conversation, the fox went out to find an animal for the lion. On the way, he met a fat donkey. He said “My friend, I have got good news for you. You are very lucky. Our king, the lion has chosen you to be his chief minister. He asked me to meet you and inform you about his decision.” The donkey was scared of the lion and said, “I am afraid of the lion. He might kill me and eat me up. Why has he chosen me as his chief minsiter ? I am not even fit enough to be a minster as I am not as intelligent as other animals.” The clever fox laughed and, said, “Dear, you don’t know your great qualities. Our king is dying to meet you. He has chosen you because you are wise, gentle, and hard working. By serving the king, you will be the second most powerful animal of our forest. Imagine, all the other animals will respect you and seek favours from you.” “You must not lose your greatest chance in life.” So, the poor donkey was convinced and got ready to go along with the fox.

In this way, the fox managed to attract the donkey to the lion’s den. When the fox and the donkey approached, the lion was hungrier than ever. But he kept a smiling face and said, “Welcome, my dear friend. Come near me. You are my chief minister.” As the donkey came closer, the lion pounced on him and killed him instantly. The lion thanked the clever fox and was happy to get the food. As the lion sat down to take his meal, the fox said, “Your Majesty, I know you are very hungry but a king must take a bath before his meal”. The lion thought it was a good idea and told the fox to keep a watch on the carcass of the donkey”. The fox silently sat down to keep a watch of the donkey and thought to himslef, “I took all the trouble of getting the donkey here. It is I who deserve the best portion of the meal”. Thus, the fox cut open the head of the donkey and ate up the whole brain. When the lion returned he shouted, “What happened to the donkey’s brain ? I wanted to eat the brain first.” The fox smilingly replied, “Your majesty,
donkeys have no brains. If he had any, he would not have come near a lion at all”.

1. Why did the lion decide to have an assistant for him ?
(A) He was too lazy to hunt for himself
(B) He was old and weak and could not hunt any more
(C) He wanted someone to help him kill the fat donkey
(D) He could not handle the affairs of the forest alone
(E) None of these

2. Why did the lion select the fox as his assistant ?
(A) He had heard that the fox had good hunting skills
(B) He wanted the fox to take over as the king of the forest
(C) The fox had offered to let the lion have his leftovers
(D) He had planned to eat the fox after luring him to become his assistant
(E) None of these

3. Why did the fox say ‘our king is dying to meet you’ to the donkey ?
(A) The king would have died of hunger if the donkey did not meet him
(B) The king desperately wanted the donkey to be his chief minister as he was gentle and hard working
(C) The fox wanted to convince the donkey to come with him to the lion so that the lion could eat him
(D) The king wanted to meet the doneky since all other animals respected the donkey more than the king
(E) None of these

4. Which of the following best describes the donkey ?
(A) Honest
(B) Wicked
(C) Clever
(D) Opportunist
(E) Foolish

5. Which one of the phrases given below the following statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningfully correct sentence in the context of the passage ?
When the lion did not see any brain in the donkey’s head ……….
(A) he spared his life and let him go
(B) he got upset with the fox for having selected such a donkey
(C) he took his decision to make him the chief minister back
(D) the fox explained to him that donekys do not have any brains
(E) None of these

6. What, according to the lion, was the fox’s primary duty as a minister ?
(A) To force all animals to respect their king and seek favours from him
(B) To convince the donkey to become his chief minister
(C) To take over as the king of the forest since the lion had grown too old
(D) To bring him an animal to eat every day
(E) None of these

7. What did the fox do when the lion went to take a bath before having his meal ?
(A) He secretly told the donkey to run away as the lion had planned to kill him
(B) He ate up the donkey’s brain as he had done all the hard work of bringing him to the lion’s den
(C) He held himself responsible for the death of the poor donkey and did not let the lion eat the donkey
(D) He killed the lion with the help of the donkey and became the king of the forest
(E) None of these

8. Which of the following is TRUE in context of the passage ?
(A) Finally, the fox got the best part of the meal
(B) The donkey was appointed as chief minister to the king
(C) The donkey which the fox had brought for the king did not have any brain in his head
(D) The donkey was very intelligent and clever
(E) None is true

9. What did the lion do when he saw the donkey in his den ?
(A) He was impressed by the donkey and made him his chief minister
(B) He ordered the fox to kill him and eat his brain
(C) He went to take a bath before meeting the donkey
(D) He immediately noticed that the donkey did not have any brain
(E) None of these

10. Which of the following is the moral of the story ?
(A) An idle brain is the devil’s workshop
(B) Fools are deaf to wise words
(C) Never believe an enemy’s sweet talks
(D) Morality can be best tested while one has power
(E) One can only lead a horse to water, but not make him drink it

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. POUNCED
(A) Climbed
(B) Grew
(C) Attacked
(D) Plunged
(E) Roared

12. FIT
(A) Healthy
(B) Deserving
(C) Strong
(D) Valuable
(E) Important

13. LOSE
(A) Misplace
(B) Suffer
(C) Dispose
(D) Defeat
(E) Miss

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. HANDLE
(A) Mismanage
(B) Drop
(C) Confront
(D) Decline
(E) Uncover

15. FRAIL
(A) Unhealthy
(B) Massive
(C) Rich
(D) Robust
(E) Civilised

Directions—(Q. 16–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. When I called him yesterday, (A) / he offered to donate (B) / a handsome sum to (C) / the flood relief fund. (D) No error (E)

17. The student which (A) / you had thought (B) / so highly of has (C) / failed to pass the examination. (D) No error (E)

18. Government took strict action (A) / against the doctors on strike (B) / but they refused to (C) / resume to work. (D) No error (E)

19. If a person has been given (A) / diplomatic immunity then he (B) / cannot be arrested on a (C) / foreign land under any circumstance. (D) No error (E)

20. A group of birds (A) / migrate from southern part (B) / of the country to the (C) / Northern part during summer. (D) No error (E)

21. The constable said that (A) / the prisoner seize a (B) / fully loaded gun from a policeman (C) / and shot the prosecutor. (D) No error (E)

22. It will not be possible for you (A) / to catch the train on time (B) / because the nearest railway station (C) / is at ten kilometres away. (D) No error (E)

23. Each of the survivors of the Tsunami (A) (B) / have been offered free (C) / psychological consultation to ease their trauma, / by some of the top consultants. (D) No error (E)

24. Considering about her good credentials, (A) / the manager offered her a job (B) / in his organization (C) / despite the lack of experience. (D) No error (E)

25. Although he has been (A) / winning the elections (B) / all years, this year his popularity (C) / has substantially reduced. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) To their surprise, however, the reward went to a beggar who had contributed only a Rupee instead of a wealthy donor.
(b) He received funds from many people as rich and poor donated generously to his trust.
(c) The man explained that the one Rupee given by the beggar was worth millions of Rupees as that was all the money he possessed and that he had made a much greater sacrifice than others.
(d) During the function everyone waited with bated breath to hear who had made the maximum contribution.
(e) A man went from town to town to collect money for his charitable trust.
(f) On returning he decided to hold a function and reward the person whose contribution had been maximum.

26. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) b
(B) c
(C) d
(D) e
(E) f

27. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) c
(C) d
(D) e
(E) f

28. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) b
(B) c
(C) d
(D) e
(E) f

29. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) e
(E) f

30. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) d
(D) e
(E) f

Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each of the following questions six words are given which are denoted by (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f). By using all the six words, each only once, you have to frame a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. The correct order of words is the answer. Choose from the five alternatives, the one having the correct order of words and mark it as your answer on the answer-sheet.

31. (a) OTHERS
(b) HER
(c) SHE
(d) MISTAKES
(e) FOR
(f) BLAMES
(A) cfaebd
(B) acfebd
(C) bdacfe
(D) cfdabe
(E) bdafce

32. (a) FINALISE
(b) WE
(c) DETAILS
(d) LATER
(e) THE
(f) WILL
(A) BFEACD
(B) BDCFEA
(C) BDCAEF
(D) ECFDBA
(E) BFAECD

33. (a) UV-RAYS
(b) ABSORBS
(c) THE
(d) LAYER
(e) HARMFUL
(f) OZONE
(A) ACBEFD
(B) CFDBEA
(C) ACBFED
(D) CFBDAE
(E) CBEAFD

34. (a) PRACTISING
(b) SPEECH
(c) SPENT
(d) HIS
(e) HE
(f) HOURS
(A) DBCFEA
(B) DBFCAE
(C) EBCDAF
(D) FACBED
(E) ECFADB

35. (a) TO
(b) AROUND
(c) SEE
(d) THEY
(e) HIM
(f) HATED
(A) DFAECB
(B) DBFAEC
(C) DFCAEB
(D) DFACEB
(E) CEBFAD

Directions—(Q. 36–40) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, if any, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E), i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

36. A large number of celebrities (A) have joined an NGO involved (B) in the movement for protection (C) of animal writes. (D) All correct (E)

37. The teacher liked the poem (A) so much that she requested (B) Saba to read it allowed (C) to the whole (D) class. All correct (E)

38. Breathe (A) deeply and inhale the sents (B) of Roses and Daisies in the landscaped gardens (C) surrounding (D) my house. All correct (E)

39. As the wind blue (A) harder every minute, (B) people got a fairly (C) good idea that a storm was approaching (D) the town. All correct (E)

40. The family had to bear (A) a leaky sealing (B) throughout the rainy season (C) as they could not afford (D) to get it repaired. All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Once upon a time, there lived a sparrow on a banyan tree. She laid her eggs in the nest. One afternoon, a wild elephant came under the tree and in a fit of rage, broke a branch of the tree on which the nest was …(41)…. Unfortunately, all the eggs of the sparrow …(42)… after falling down though the sparrow was saved. The sparrow was full of grief and began weeping for her eggs.

A woodpecker, a close friend of the sparrow, heard her crying and asked her, “Why are you crying, my friend ?” The sparrow said, “The …(43)… elephant has killed my offspring. If you are a true friend of mine, suggest a way-to kill him”. The woodpecker …(44)… her and told her that he knew a fly and she would definitely help them kill the elephant.

Both of them went to seek the help of the fly. The woodpecker said, “A wild elephant has crushed my friend’s eggs. We need your help in killing him.” the fly replied, “One of my friends is a frog. Let us go to him and take his help too”. They went to the frog and …(45)… the whole incident. The frog said, “What can an elephant do before a united crowd like us ? Do what I tell you. Dear Fly, you go to the elephant and hum a sweet tune into his ears. When he closes his eyes in delight, the woodpecker will poke his eyes. This way, he will become …(46)…. When he gets thirsty, he will …(47)… for water. I will go to a marshy land and begin croaking there. …(48)… that there is water, the elephant will come there. He will sink into the marshy area and …(49)….

The next day in the noon, all of them played out the plan and the elephant was killed, as he drowned into a marshy area after being blinded by the woodpecker, when he closed his eyes in response to the music. Thus, the smartness of all the animals enabled the sparrow in taking her …(50)… on the elephant.

41. (A) Born
(B) Built
(C) Grown
(D) Broken
(E) Found

42. (A) Fell
(B) Escaped
(C) Damaged
(D) Survived
(E) Broke

43. (A) Defective
(B) Attacking
(C) Wicked
(D) Poor
(E) Harmless

44. (A) Ignored
(B) Protected
(C) Scolded
(D) Consoled
(E) Defended

45. (A) Said
(B) Informed
(C) Revived
(D) Mention
(E) Narrated

46. (A) Blind
(B) Unseen
(C) Regretful
(D) Sorry
(E) Dead

47. (A) Need
(B) Want
(C) Search
(D) Drink
(E) Demands

48. (A) Recalling
(B) Informed
(C) Sure
(D) Assuming
(E) Accepting

49. (A) Hurt
(B) Die
(C) Fall
(D) Kill
(E) Realise

50. (A) Help
(B) Revenge
(C) Anger
(D) Insult
(E) Fight

Answers :
1. (B) 2. (E) 3. (A) 4. (E) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (E) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (E) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (D) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (B) 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (E) 30. (D)
31. (A) 32. (E) 33. (B) 34. (E) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (B)
41. (B) 42. (E) 43. (C) 44. (D) 45. (E) 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (B) 50. (B)

Vijaya Bank Clerk Exam, 2010 : Reasoning Ability (Fully Solved)

2010-06-03T20:44:00.000-07:00

href="http://4.bp.blogspot.com/_M9ckjS8Bq4Y/TAh0nWSwhMI/AAAAAAAADJs/O5poLbmFJuc/s1600/Vijay

a+Bank+Logo.gif">
MARGIN: 0px auto 10px; WIDTH: 209px; CURSOR: hand; HEIGHT: 60px; TEXT-ALIGN: center" alt=""

src="http://4.bp.blogspot.com/_M9ckjS8Bq4Y/TAh0nWSwhMI/AAAAAAAADJs/O5poLbmFJuc/s400/Vijaya+

Bank+Logo.gif" border="0" />
style="color:#000099;">Vijaya Bank Clerk Exam., 2010

align="center">(Held on

7-2-2010)
Reasoning Ability : Solved Paper

1. How many such pairs of digits are there in number ‘36725918’ each of which has as many

digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order

within the numbers ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

2. What should come next in the following number series ?
6 8 8 1 2 6 8 6 1 2 3 6 8 8 1 2 3 4 6 8 6 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 ?
(A) 6
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. In a certain code PAGE is written as ‘3%7@’, SORE is written as 8©9@. How is ‘PEAS’

written in that code ?
(A) 3@©8
(B) 3@%9
(C) 3@%8
(D) 3%@8
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

4. If ‘@’ means ‘x, ‘©’ means ‘÷’, ‘%’ means ‘+’ and ‘$’ means ‘–’ then ………
6 % 12 © 3 @ 8 $ 3 = ?
(A) 37
(B) 35
(C) 39
(D) 33
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

5. In a certain code ‘MOUSE’ is written as ‘PRUQC’. How is ‘SHIFT’ written in that code ?
(A) VKIRD
(B) VKIDR
(C) VJIDR
(D) VIKRD
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ‘OEHM’ using each letter

only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (B)

7. Among A, B, C, D and E each scoring different marks in a test, C scored more than D but

not as much as E. E scored more than A who scored less than B. Who score third highest

marks ?
(A) B
(B) A
(C) C
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. ‘K’ walked 5 metre towards North, took a left turn and walked for 10 metre. He then took

a right turn and walked for 20 metre, and again took right turn and walked 10 metre. How

far he is from the starting point ?
(A) 20 metre
(B) 15 metre
(C) 25 metre
(D) 30 metre
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

9. Pointing to a girl, Mr. Suraj said “she is the only daughter of my father’s son-in-law”.

How is the girl related to Mr. Suraj ?
(A) Niece
(B) Cousin
(C) Sister
(D) Daughter
(E) Cannot be determined
Ans : (A)

10. Sneha correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is before 16th June but after 11th

June whereas her younger brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after

13th June but before 18th June and her elder brother correctly remembers that their

father’s birthday is on an even date. On what date in June is definitely their father’s

birthday ?
(A) Sixteenth
(B) Twelfth
(C) Fourteenth or Sixteenth
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

11. How many such digits are there in the number ‘37152869’ each of which is as far away

from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within

the number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

12. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CONFIRM’ each of which has as

many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

13. ‘KN’ is related to ‘QT’ in the same way as ‘DG’ related to ……….
(A) JN
(B) IM
(C) JM
(D) IN
(E) IL
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 14–16) Following questions are based on the five

three-digit numbers given below :
518 849 365 783 291

14. If the positions of first and third digits in each number are interchanged, which of

the following will be the second digit of third highest number ?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 9
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

15. If the first digit in all the numbers starting with an even digit is replaced by a

number preceding it, then which of the following will be the sum of the first digit of the

resulting highest and the lowest numbers ?
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 7
(D) 6
(E) 13
Ans : (E)

16. If the positions of the first and the second digits in each number are interchanged,

which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 849
(B) 365
(C) 783
(D) 291
(E) 518
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 17–22) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer

the questions given below.
Q 9 K # P @ 3 E N S A C ★ G © U M 7 F I V % 4 Z 8 Y

17. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will

be the seventeenth from the right end ?
(A) E
(B) P
(C) I
(D) C
(E) @
Ans : (E)

18. Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the fifth to the left of ‘V’ ?
(A) 3
(B) A
(C) N
(D) S
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

19. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of the fourteenth from the left end

of the above arrangement ?
(A) V
(B) 4
(C) %
(D) E
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the

above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group

?
(A) IM%
(B) CNG
(C) 3#N
(D) UGC
(E) GAU
Ans : (D)

21. How many such symbols are there in above arrangement, each of which is immediately

preceded by an alphabet and immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

22. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately

preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Three
(D) Two
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 23–28) In each of the questions below are given four

statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given

statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read

all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from

the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

23. Statements :
All coins are glasses.
Some glasses are cups.
Some cups are boxes.
All boxes are pins.
Conclusions :
I. Some coins are cups.
II. Some pins are glasses.
III. Some cups are pins.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

24. Statements :
Some pens are pencils.
All pencils are caps.
All caps are buses.
Some buses are trains.
Conclusions :
I. Some trains are caps.
II. Some pens are buses.
III. Some pencils are trains.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) None follow
(E) All I, II and III follow
Ans : (B)

25. Statements :
All shirts are skirts.
All skirts are banks.
All banks are roads.
All roads are brushes.
Conclusions :
I. All banks are skirts.
II. All roads are banks.
III. Some brushes are shirts.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All I, II and III follow
(E) None follows
Ans : (B)

26. Statements :
Some fishes are plates.
Some plates are spoons.
Some spoons are plants.
All plants are crows.
Conclusions :
I. Some plates are crows.
II. Some crows are spoons.
III. Some plants are spoons.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) None follows
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) Either I or III follows
Ans : (D)

27. Statements :
Some eggs are hens.
Some hens are ducks.
All ducks are pigeons.
All pigeons are sparrows.
Conclusions :
I. All ducks are sparrows.
II. No egg is duck.
III. Some sparrows are hens.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only I and III follow
(E) All I, II and III follow
Ans : (D)

28. Statements :
No man is tiger.
No tiger is cat.
Some cats are lions.
Some lions are tigers.
Conclusions :
I. Some tigers are cats.
II. Some cats are men.
III. Some lions are men.
(A) None follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only I and II follow
(D) Only I follows
(E) Only II and III follow
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 29–33) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, $, %

and * are used with the following meaning as illustrated below—
‘P © Q’ means P is not smaller than Q
‘P * Q’ means P is not greater than Q
‘P @ Q’ means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q
‘P $ Q’ means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q
‘P % Q’ means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which

of the conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/are definitely

true and give your answers accordingly.

29. Statements :
K © L, L % O, O @ M, M * N
Conclusions : I. N © O
II. M $ L
III. K * N
IV. L @ N
(A) Only II is true
(B) Only I and II are true
(C) Only I is true
(D) Either I or II is true
(E) None is true
Ans : (B)

30. Statements :
A * B, B $ C, C % D, D © E
Conclusions : I. D $ A
II. B $ D
III. E % C
IV. A @ E
(A) Only I is ture
(B) Only either I or II is true
(C) Only I and IV are true
(D) None is true
(E) Only IV is true
Ans : (D)

31. Statements :
F $ P, P @ R, R © S, S % T
Conclusions : I. R % F
II. S * P
III. P © T
IV. S % F
(A) Only I, II and III are true
(B) Only I and II are true
(C) Only III and IV are true
(D) Only I, II and IV are true
(E) All are true
Ans : (D)

32. Statements :
G % H, H * I, I $ J, J @ K
Conclusions : I. G % I
II. G % J
III. K $ I
IV. H * J
(A) Only I is true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Only I, II and III are true
(D) Only either I or II and III are true
(E) All are true
Ans : (A)

33. Statements :
V @ W, W % X, X * Y, Y $ Z
Conclusions : I. Z $ X
II. Y © V
III. W % Y
IV. Y @ W
(A) Only I and III are true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Only III is true
(D) None is true
(E) Only III and IV are true
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 34–40) Study the following information carefully and answer

the questions given below.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. C is fourth to the

left of F who is fifth to right of E. D is third to the right of A who is not immediate

neighbour of E of F. B is third to left of H who is not immediate neighbour of E.

34. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the

above sitting arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does

not belong to that group ?
(A) HFE
(B) DCG
(C) BHF
(D) AEF
(E) CGB
Ans : (D)

35. Who is between D and E ?
(A) C
(B) B
(C) A
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

36. Which of the following pairs are sitting between A and D ?
(A) FB
(B) GB
(C) FG
(D) FE
(E) GE
Ans : (C)

37. Who is third to the right of E ?
(A) B
(B) F
(C) D
(D) G
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

38. Who is to the immediate right of A ?
(A) G
(B) B
(C) F
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. What is D’s position with respect to B ?
(a) Immediate right
(b) Fourth to the right
(c) Third to the left
(d) Immediate left
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (b) and (c)
(D) Only (d)
(E) Only either (a) or (d)
Ans : (D)

40. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate left of

the second person ?
(A) CH
(B) GA
(C) BD
(D) FG
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

State Bank of India Clerk (First Shift) Exam, 2009 : Solved Paper

2010-06-03T20:02:00.000-07:00

State Bank of India
Clerk (First Shift) Exam., 2009
(Held on 22-11-2009)
General Awareness : Solved Paper

1. As per the reports of the survey conducted by various agencies jointly, which of the following countries is adjudged as the ‘Most Favoured Nation’ for back office support to the world’s major multinationals ?
(A) China
(B) South Africa
(C) Singapore
(D) India
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. Which of the following nations is found at the top of the ‘World’s Green, Index’, compiled by various global agencies jointly ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) USA
(D) Britain
(E) Japan
Ans : (B)

3. The President of India in her first speech in the joint session of the current parliament had said that every family living below poverty line would get 25 kg. of wheat/rice per month at @ Rs. 3 per kg. To achieve this she recommended enacting of which of the following Acts ?
(A) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(B) National Agricultural Commodities and Warehousing Act
(C) Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Act
(D) National Minimum Wages Act
(E) National Food Security Act
Ans : (E)

4. As per the news paper reports, India is in the process of purchasing some ‘mid-air refuellers’ from a global supplier. These ‘mid-air refuellers’ are being procured for which of the following establishments ?
(A) Indian Airlines and Air India
(B) Indian Air Force
(C) Ministry of Civil Aviation
(D) Pawan Hans
(E) Ministry of Surface Transport
Ans : (B)

5. The Govt. of India announced a special relief package of several thousand crores of rupees for which of the following sections of our society ?
(A) Senior Citizens
(B) Women Employees of Central Government
(C) Farmers
(D) Workers in unorganized sectors
(E) All of these
Ans : (C)

6. The present Lok Sabha is formed after the ……….
(A) 13th general elections
(B) 14th general elections
(C) 15th general elections
(D) 16th genral elections
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

7. As per the reports published in various newspapers, the number of India’s wireless subscribers has become about 400 million. Which of the following agencies, as a regulator, has published this data ?
(A) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
(B) MTNL
(C) Department of Telecommunication Services (DTS)
(D) Association of Cellular Service Providers
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. Late Y. S. Rajasekhar Reddy who passed away a few months back was holding which of the following positions ?
(A) Chief Minister of a state
(B) Union Cabinet Minister
(C) Governor of a State
(D) Chief Secretary of a State
(E) India’s permanent Representative in the UNO
Ans : (A)

9. The ‘H1N1’ virus is responsible for the outbreak of which of the following in the world ?
(A) AIDS
(B) Swine Flue
(C) Polio
(D) T.B.
(E) Chikungunya
Ans : (B)

10. Who amongst the following is NOT a member of the present Union Cabinet ?
(A) Ambika Soni
(B) Kamalnath
(C) Rahul Gandhi
(D) Jyotiraditya Scindia
(E) Vilasrao Deshmukh
Ans : (C)

11. Which of the following agencies has estimated that by the year 2015 about a quarter of India’s population will be living in extreme poverty ?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) World Bank
(C) U N Economic and Social Council
(D) U N Food and Agricultural Organisation
(E) International Monetary Fund
Ans : (B)

12. The war between Russia and which of the following nations in 2008 is known as ‘August war’ ?
(A) Georgia
(B) Iran
(C) Slovakia
(D) Afghanistan
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

13. Which of the following is Bank Rate at present ?
(A) 3%
(B) 4%
(C) 5%
(D) 6%
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

14. India is NOT a member of which of the following organizations ?
(A) SAARC
(B) WTO
(C) BRIC
(D) UNO
(E) OPEC
Ans : (E)

15. Which of the following schemes is launched by the Ministry of Rural Development ?
(A) Mid Day Meal Scheme
(B) Janani Suraksha Yojana
(C) Know India Programme
(D) National Food for Work Programme
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

16. Almost all Banks in India are running special schemes for providing banking services to rural poor. This concept is popularly known as ……….
(A) Faster Growth
(B) Trade Finance
(C) SME Finance
(D) Investment Banking
(E) Financial Inclusion
Ans : (E)

17. Special emphasis by the Govt. of India on which of the following will certainly improve the performance of the agriculture sector in country within a short span of time ?
(A) Focussed Public Distribution System
(B) Sanitation & Health Services
(C) Rural Employment
(D) Better irrigation facilities
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

18. The Reserve Bank of India is in the process of selling its stake in which of the following agencies /organizations ?
(A) NABARD
(B) Food Corporation of India
(C) Steel Authority of India Ltd.
(D) Bombay Stock Exchange
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

19. The market value of all final goods and services produced and/made with the geographical boundaries of a country in a year is known as ……….
(A) Gross Domestic Product
(B) Gross National Saving
(C) Gross Fiscal Deficit
(D) Gross Domestic Capital Formation
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. Organisation of workers in which of the following groups has proved a very effective way of providing micro finance by banks to the rural people and poor in India ?
(A) Self Help Groups
(B) Vriksha Mitras
(C) Shiksha Sevaks
(D) Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA)
(E) Link Workers
Ans : (A)

21. Which of the following things is done in the Union Budget 2009-10, to help ‘Tax payers’ in India ?
(A) Mobile phones, branded jewellery and leather products will cost less as the Custom duty is reduced on them
(B) Allocation under Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana is increased by 30%
(C) Farm Loan Waiver scheme is extended to 31st December 2009
(D) Fringe Benefit Tax abolished
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

22. The Government of India has increased its allocation of funds to which of the following schemes by 144% in current union budget, as it has proved to be a very popular scheme amongst the rural job seekers ?
(A) Integrated Rural Development Programme
(B) National Food for Work Programme
(C) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(D) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

23. Which of the following Acts is enacted to help the Union Govt. to manage its budgeted finances and fiscal deficit in a very disciplined manner ?
(A) The Competition Act
(B) The Banking Regulation Act
(C) The Negotiable Instruments Act
(D) Foreign Exchange Management Act
(E) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act
Ans : (E)

24. Which of the following is NOT a banking related term ?
(A) Discount
(B) Credit
(C) Reynolds Number
(D) Post Dated Cheque
(E) Time Deposit
Ans : (C)

25. Who amongst the following was awarded Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna in 2009 ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Abhishek Jha
(C) Saina Nehwal
(D) M. C. Mary Kom
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

26. Which of the following books is written by Sunil Gavaskar ?
(A) By God’s Decree
(B) Freedom From Fear
(C) Sunny Days
(D) Story of My Life
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

27. Who amongst the following can never be a winner of the Nobel Prize ?
(A) An Author
(B) A Medical Doctor
(C) An Economist
(D) A Physicist
(E) A world famous Musician
Ans : (E)

28. Which of the following awards is NOT given by the Government of India ?
(A) Bharat Ratna
(B) Padma Vibhushan
(C) Ashok Chakra
(D) Kalinga Prize
(E) All are given by the Government of India
Ans : (D)

29. Which of the following operations is conducted after a gap of every ten years ?
(A) Economic survey
(B) Estimates of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
(C) Compilation of Human Development Report
(D) Census of Small Scale Enterprises
(E) General Census
Ans : (E)

30. Which of the following schemes is launched to make Indian cities free from slums in days to come ?
(A) Indira Awas Yojana
(B) Bharat Nirman
(C) Rajiv Awas Yojana
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

31. Which of the following is NOT the name of an irrigation system prevalent in India ?
(A) Sprinkler System
(B) Silage System
(C) Drip System
(D) Furrow System
(E) Canal System
Ans : (B)

32. Deep Joshi was given Raman Magsaysay Award in 2009 for his contribution in the field of ……….
(A) literature
(B) sports
(C) cinema
(D) journalism
(E) rural development
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Badminton ?
(A) Double Fault
(B) Punch
(C) Follow on
(D) Tee
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. Cashew nut is not produced as a major product in which of the following states ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Goa
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Orissa
(E) Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (C)

35. Late Norman Borlaug who passed away recently, was famous for his contribution to which of the following in India ?
(A) Operation Flood
(B) Operation Black Board
(C) Co-operative Movement in Milk production
(D) Green Revolution
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

36. Which of the following cups/trophies is NOT related with the game of cricket ?
(A) Deodhar Trophy
(B) Irani Trophy
(C) Subroto Cup
(D) Ranji Trophy
(E) ICC Trophy
Ans : (C)

37. Which of the following books is written by Namita Gokhale ?
(A) A Himalayan Love Story
(B) Soul Mountain
(C) A New World
(D) The Last Hero
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

38. Which of the following taxes is not levied by the Government of India ?
(A) Income Tax
(B) Professional Tax
(C) Excise Duty
(D) Dividend Distribution Tax
(E) Capital Gain Tax
Ans : (B)

39. Which of the following cups/trophies is associated with the game of Lawn Tennis ?
(A) Bomba Gold Cup
(B) Davis Cup
(C) Ranji Trophy
(D) Vizzy Trophy
(E) Nehru Trophy
Ans : (B)

40. Who amonst the following was a famous author and director ?
(A) C. V. Raman
(B) Vijay Tendulkar
(C) Bidhanchandra Roy
(D) Bismillah Khan
(E) Vilayat Khan
Ans : (B)

Indian Polity & Constitution Quiz

2010-06-02T21:09:00.000-07:00

1. Which one of the following bills can be introduced in the Parliament only after the consent of the President?
(A) The Constitution Amendment Bill
(B) The Finance Bill
(C) The Bill for the creation of a new State
(D) The Bill providing for the creation of a new All India Service

2. How many Union Territories are there in India?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 6

3. What is the age at which an Indian can become a candidate for Presidentship?
(A) 45
(B) 65
(C) 60
(D) 35

4. A Presidential proclamation can remain in force for :
(A) Three months
(B) Two months
(C) One year
(D) Till the President revokes it

5. The reservation for SC and ST in Parliament and State Legislatures is extended for 10 years through Constitution’s :
(A) 84th Amendment
(B) 23rd Amendment
(C) 82 Amendment
(D) None of these

6. According to the newly adopted Constitution of Russia, the Prime Minister is appointed by :
(A) The State Duma, the Lower Chamber of the Federal Assembly
(B) The President, with the consent of the State Duma
(C) The President, with the consent of the Federal Council
(D) The Federal Council

7. Freedom of the Press in India :
(A) is specifically provided in Article 19(1) of the Constitution
(B) is implied in the wider freedom of expression guaranteed by Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution
(C) is guaranteed under the provisions of Article 361A of the Constitution
(D) emanates from the operation of the Rule of Law in the country

8. In which respect have the Centre-State relations been specifically termed as ‘municipal relations’?
(A) Centre’s control of the State in the legislative sphere
(B) Centre’s control of the State in financial matters
(C) Centre’s control of the State in the administrative sector
(D) Centre’s control of the State in the planning process

9. Which of the following features does not belong to a federal government?
(A) The government has two distinct levels, State government and Central or Union government
(B) State governments are agents of the Central government
(C) Both Central government and State governments derive powers from the Constitution
(D) Both Central government and State governments have coordinate status

10. Article 243 of the Constitution of India, inserted by a constitutional amendment, deals with which of the following?
(A) Extending the benefits of reservation on the basis of Mandal Commission’s recommendations
(B) Land Reforms
(C) To include Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali in the list of official languages
(D) Panchayati Raj System

11. The Estimates Committee of Parliament :
(A) Examines the statements of accounts of the government
(B) Considers the report of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
(C) Examines if the money is well laid out within policy limits
(D) Examines the budget before its presentation to Lok Sabha

12. The notice for moving the Motion for Adjournment of the business of the House is required to be given to :
(A) The Presiding Officer of the House
(B) The Secretary General of the House
(C) The Minister concerned
(D) All the above

13. The Election Commission functions under :
(A) Ministry of law
(B) Prime Minister’s Secretariat
(C) Ministry of Home Affairs
(D) None of the above

14. In a parliamentary form of government, the executive is responsible to the :
(A) People
(B) President
(C) Legislature
(D) Judiciary

15. Education was transferred to the Concurrent List from the State List by the :
(A) 40th Amendment Act
(B) 42nd Amendment Act
(C) 43rd Amendment Act
(D) 39th Amendment Act

16. Indian Constitution provides for a :
(A) Presidential system
(B) Unicameral system
(C) Bicameral system
(D) Unitary system

17. Presidential system of government is incompatible with the :
(A) Theory of Separation of powers
(B) Executive Accountability to the Legislature
(C) Judical Review
(D) Spoils System

18. Election symbols are allotted to various candidates for Parliamentary elections, after scrutiny of nomination papers, by :
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Chief Electoral Officer of the State
(C) Returning Officer of the Constituency
(D) Secretary to the Election Commissioner

19. Which ideal of the Constitution of India is achieved by the implementation of the adult franchise in India?
(A) Social equality
(B) Economic equality
(C) Political equality
(D) Equality before law

20. Article 254 of the Indian Constitution describes which of the following :
(A) The Parliament has the power to increase the number of judges
(B) The Union and State have concurrent powers to legislate on any matter enumerated in List III
(C) In case of any conflict between Union laws and State laws, the Union laws shall prevail
(D) The Union has exclusive power to make laws on any matter not enumerated in the concurrent list or State list

India Geography Quiz

2010-06-02T21:02:00.000-07:00

1. Which is the home of the Asiatic lion?
(A) Corbett National Park
(B) Kanha National Park
(C) Dudhwa National Park
(D) Gir National Park

2. Which of the following Indian states has the lowest area under forest?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Haryana

3. The largest estuary in India is at the mouth of river :
(A) Hooghly
(B) Bhagirathi
(C) Godavari
(D) Krishna

4. The Nagarjuna Sagar project is constructed on the river:
(A) Kaveri
(B) Krishna
(C) Godavari
(D) Indus

5. Which racial group does the tribals of Andaman Islands resemble?
(A) Negrito
(B) Mongoloid
(C) Alpinoid
(D) Nordic

6. Evergreen rain forests are mainly found in regions having well distributed annual rainfall :
(A) Below 50 cm
(B) 50-100 cm
(C) 100-200 cm
(D) More than 200 cm

7. The package technology which brought about green revolution comprised mainly of :
(A) Man power, mechanical cultivators and electricity
(B) Changes in crop pattern, industrialisation and chemical fertilizers
(C) Irrigation, bio-chemical fertilizers and high yield varieties of seeds
(D) Electricity, irrigation and introduction of dry farming

8. The West of East extension of the Himalayas is from :
(A) Indus gorge to Dihang gorge
(B) K-2 to Chomolhari
(C) Nanga Parbat to Numcha Barwa
(D) Rakaposhi to Lohit river

9. Where are the Todas found?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Arunachal Pradesh

10. The animal which has become extinct recently in India happens to be :
(A) Golden cat
(B) Cheetah
(C) Wooly wolf
(D) Rhinoceros

11. The production of onion is the highest in :
(A) Uttar pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Andhra Pradesh

12. The Jawahar Tunnel, the largest in India is located in :
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) West Bengal
(D) Jammu and Kashmir

13. The best variety of world’s cotton is known as :
(A) Sea Island
(B) Upland American
(C) Egyptian
(D) Short staple Indian

14. The largest flightless bird which can run at a great speed is :
(A) Penguin
(B) Kiwi
(C) Ostrich
(D) Emu

15. Most of the devastating earthquakes are usually caused by :
(A) Eustatic movement
(B) Isostatic adjustment
(C) Collision of earth plates
(D) Volcanic eruption

16. Which of the following has the highest wind velocity?
(A) Typhoon
(B) Hurricane
(C) Cyclone
(D) Tornado

17. Speed of wind is measured by :
(A) Barometer
(B) Hygrometer
(C) Thermometer
(D) Anemometer

18. The soil water which is of the greatest importance to the plant life is :
(A) Gravitational water
(B) Capillary water
(C) Hygroscopic water
(D) Combined water

19. Which of the following oceans has the shape of the English Alphabet S?
(A) Arctic ocean
(B) Indian ocean
(C) Atlantic ocean
(D) Pacific ocean

20. Trade winds are due to :
(A) Conduction
(B) Convection
(C) Radiation
(D) Scattering

Indian History Quiz

2010-06-02T20:29:00.000-07:00

1. Razia Sultan was a ruler in the :
(A) Second half of the 11th century
(B) First half of the 12th century
(C) First half of the 13th century
(D) First half of the 14th century

2. Token currency was introduced for the first time in India by :
(A) Ala-ud-din Khilji
(B) Firuz Shah Tughluq
(C) Ghiyas-ud-din Tughluq
(D) Muhammed-bin Tughluq

3. Rig Veda is believed by historians to have been written when :
(A) It was Stone Age
(B) It was Copper age
(C) It was Bronze Age
(D) The Iron Age had already commenced

4. Harshavardhana was defeated by :
(A) Kirtivarman
(B) Narasimhavarman
(C) Pulakesin I
(D) Pulakesin II

5. Who was the first ruler of annex any part of the Deccan to the Mughal empire?
(A) Aurangzeb
(B) Akbar
(C) Humayun
(D) Jahangir

6. Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri was built by Akbar to commemorate :
(A) The birth of his son, Salim
(B) His conquest of Gujarat
(C) His own coronation
(D) His conquest of Deccan

7. Who introduced the Mansabdari system?
(A) Ibrahim Lodhi
(B) Humayun
(C) Sher Shah
(D) Akbar

8. Who, among the following, conquered a large part of China?
(A) Ashoka
(B) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
(C) Harsha Vardhana
(D) Kanishka

9. The term Vrajapati, used in the Vedic literature, denoted :
(A) The head of the family
(B) The head of the village
(C) A senior member of the Sabha
(D) The head of the merchants

10. The first place among poets of Emperor Akbar’s reign, both Hindi and Persian, belongs to :
(A) Abdur Rahim Khan Khanan
(B) Ras Khan
(C) Sur Das
(D) Tulsi Das

11. Who was the last Mughal emperor of India?
(A) Akbar II
(B) Bahadur Shah II
(C) Alamgir II
(D) Shah Alam II

12. Akbar was proclaimed Emperor in :
(A) 1556 AD
(B) 1557 AD
(C) 1558 AD
(D) 1560 AD

13. Who was called ‘Asia’s Light’ in Ancient India?
(A) Buddha
(B) Ashoka
(C) Gandhi
(D) Mohammad

14. Who was the Portuguese Viceroy in India?
(A) Albuquerque
(B) Sir Firman Xavier
(C) Lord Minto
(D) None of the above

15. On which system political organisation of Rajputs was based?
(A) Feudal system
(B) Ryotwari system
(C) Democratic system
(D) Religious system

16. Who was called the ‘Plato of the Jat tribe’?
(A) Churaman
(B) Badan Singh
(C) Suraj Mall
(D) Rajaram

17. ‘The Grand Trunk Road’ was laid by :
(A) Akbar
(B) Ashoka
(C) Sher Shah Suri
(D) Samudragupta

18. Ashoka’s Dhamma should be interpreted as :
(A) an attitude of social responsibility
(B) a synonyms for Buddhism
(C) declarations of the kings as a lay Buddhist to the Buddhist Sangha
(D) Piety resulting from good deeds inspired formal religious beliefs

19. Alexander advanced in India up to the river :
(A) Ravi
(B) Satluj
(C) Beas
(D) Yamuna

20. The Buddhist monk who converted Ashoka into Buddhism after the Kalinga war was :
(A) Udayana
(B) Dharmapala
(C) Upagupta
(D) Prasenajith

Indian Art & Culture Quiz

2010-06-02T19:59:00.000-07:00

1. The paintings of Abanindranath Tagore are classified as :
(A) Realistic
(B) Socialistic
(C) Revivalistic
(D) Impressionistic

2 Who directed the all-time famous movie called ‘‘Megha Dhaka Tara?
(A) Satyajit Ray
(B) Mrinal Sen
(C) Tapan Sinha
(D) Ritwik Ghatak

3. Music in Satyajit Ray’s film ‘Pather Panchali’ is composed by :
(A) Ravi Shankar
(B) Naushad
(C) S.D. Burman
(D) Hemanta Mukherjee

4. Aristophanes is regarded as the father of :
(A) Tragedy
(B) Comedy
(C) Satire
(D) Puppetry

5. Anton Chekhov, the playwright, was a/an :
(A) German
(B) Italian
(C) Russian
(D) French

6. Satyajit Ray made a short film on the life of :
(A) Shanti Bardhan
(B) Bala Saraswati
(C) Birju Maharaj
(D) Mangusrce Chaki Sarkar

7. Uma Sharma was great performer in :
(A) Nautanki
(B) Kathak
(C) Manipui
(D) Bhangra

8. Bhimsen Joshi is a noted :
(A) Violin Player
(B) Sitarist
(C) Tabla Player
(D) Vocalist

9. Hariprasad Chaurasia is a noted :
(A) Violin Player
(B) Tabla Player
(C) Vocalist
(D) Flautist

10. The name of heroine in Mother India, a Hindi film, was :
(A) Madhubala
(B) Nargis
(C) Suraiya
(D) Sharmila Tagore

11. Which one of the following is concerned with the promotion of dance, drama and music?
(A) Sangeet Natak Akademi
(B) Sahitya Akademi
(C) Lalit Kala Akademi
(D) National School of Drama

12. Who among the following is not associated with painting?
(A) Adimoolam
(B) Sonal Mansingh
(C) N.S. Bendre
(D) Arpana Kaur

13. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) Neel Darpan was a play based on the exploitation of the indigo farmers
(B) The author of the play Ghashiram Kotwal is Vijay Tendulkar
(C) The play Navanna by Nabin Chandra Das was based on the famine of Bengal
(D) Urdu theatre used to depend heavily on Parsi theatre

14. Which musical instrument speaks the name of Pandit Ravishankar?
(A) Sitar
(B) Violin
(C) Tabla
(D) Drums

15. Hayavadana is a play by :
(A) Vijay Tendulkar
(B) Satyadev Dubey
(C) Girish Karnad
(D) Habeeb Tanvir

16. The first talkie movie made in India by A. Irani in 1931 was :
(A) Kaagaz Ke Phool
(B) Alam Ara
(C) Raja Harishchandra
(D) Chandralekha

17. Pather Panchali, a film by Styajit Ray, was based on the novel by :
(A) Tarasankar Banerjee
(B) Bibhutibhushan Banerjee
(C) Saradindu Banerjee
(D) Rabindranath Tagore

18. Which one of the following pairs of folk dance forms and states is not correctly matched?
(A) Lezim-Maharashtra
(B) Jhumar-Haryana
(C) Kanyala-Himachal Pradesh
(D) Maha Rasa-Manipur

19. Who is accorded the prestige of introducing Ghazal in Bengali Music?
(A) D.L. Roy
(B) Manna Dey
(C) Kazi Nazrul Islam
(D) Himangsu Datta

20. What name is given to the design drawn by the women of Tamil Nadu on their floors and thresholds using pastes and powders?
(A) Madna
(B) Alpana
(C) Kolam
(D) Rangoli

Malwa Gramin Bank Clerk Exam., 31-1-2010 Solved Paper

2010-05-27T20:52:00.000-07:00

href="http://2.bp.blogspot.com/_M9ckjS8Bq4Y/S_82pZmXKHI/AAAAAAAADJI/JJns29N_daE/s1600/Malwa

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style="color:#006600;">Malwa Gramin Bank Clerk Exam., 2010
(Held on 31-1-2010)
English Language : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the

questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold

to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once upon a time, there was a royal elephant which used to reside in the premises of the

king’s palace. The elephant was very dear to the king, so he was well-fed and well treated.

There was also a Dog who lived near the Elephant’s shed. He was very weak and skinny. He

was always fascinated by the smell of rich sweet rice being fed to the royal elephant.

One day, the Dog could no longer resist the aroma of the rice and somehow

managed to sneak into the Elephant's shed. He ate the grains of sweet rice that fell from

the Elephant’s mouth. He liked the rice so much, that he started going there daily to eat

the rice. For days, the huge Elephant didn’t notice the small dog as he was busy enjoying

the delicious food. Gradually, the Dog grew bigger and stronger eating such rich food.

Finally the Elephant noticed him and allowed him access to the food.

The Elephant enjoyed the company of the Dog and started sharing his food with him. They

also started spending time with each other and soon became good friends. They ate together,

slept together and played together. While playing, the Elephant would hold the Dog in his

trunk and swing him back and forth. Soon neither of them was happy without the other. They

became great friends and didn’t want to be separated from each other.

Then one day, a man saw the Dog and asked the Elephant-keeper, “I want to buy this Dog.

What price do you want for it ?” The Elephantkeeper didn’t own the Dog but sold it and

extracted a sum of money from this deal. The man took the Dog to his home

village, which was quite far away. The King’s Elephant became very sad after this incident.

He missed his friend a lot and started neglecting everything. He didn’t want to do anything

without his dear friend, so he stopped eating, drinking and even bathing.

Finally, the Elephant-keeper reported this to the King; however he didn’t mention anything

about the Dog. The King had a wise minister, who was known for his keen

understanding of animals. The King ordered the minister, “Go to the Elephant shed and find

out the reason for the Elephant’s condition”. The intelligent minister went to the Elephant

shed and found the Elephant very sad. He examined the Elephant and asked the

Elephantkeeper, “There is nothing wrong with this Elephant’s body, then why does he look so

sad ? I think this Elephant is grief stricken, possibly due to the loss of a dear friend.

Do you know if this Elephant shared a close friendship with anyone ?

The Elephant-keeper said, “There was a Dog who used to eat, sleep and play with the

Elephant. He was taken by a stranger three days ago”. The minister went back to the King

and said, “Your majesty, in my opinion, the royal Elephant is not sick, but he is lonesome

without his dear friend, the Dog”. The King said, “You’re right, friendship is one of the

most wonderful things of life. Do you know where that Dog is ?”

The Minister replied, “Elephantkeeper has informed me that a stranger took him away and he

doesn’t know his whereabouts”. The King asked, “How can we bring back my Elephant’s friend

and make him happy again ?” The Minister suggested, “Your Majesty, make a

declaration that whoever has the dog that used to live at the royal

Elephant’s shed will be penalized”. The King did the same and the man who had taken the

dog, instantly turned him loose when he heard the proclamation. As soon as he was freed,

the Dog ran back as fast as he could to the Elephant’s shed. The Elephant was so delighted

to see the Dog that he picked his friend up with his trunk and swung him back and forth.

The Dog wagged his tail, while the Elephant’s eyes sparkled with happiness. The King was

content to see the Elephant happy once again and rewarded the Minister for his wise

judgment.

1. What was the Minister’s diagnosis of the Elephant’s condition ?
(A) The Elephant hated his keeper
(B) The Elephant was lonely
(C) The Elephant was starving
(D) The Elephant had hurt his leg and as in pain
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

2. What method did the Minister suggest to the King to get back the Dog ?
(A) To declare that whoever had that particular Dog would be punished
(B) To keep a bowl of rice for the dog in the Elephant’s shed so that he could be lured

back to the palace
(C) To command the Elephantkeeper to look for the Dog in the village
(D) To persuade the Elephant to call out to the Dog
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

3. Why had the Elephant become very sad ?
(A) He no longer got his daily bowl of rice
(B) He was unhappy with the King for having sold the Dog
(C) He missed his friend the Dog
(D) He was sold to an unknown man by his keeper
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

4. What did the Elephant-keeper do to the Dog ?
(A) He sold the Dog to an unknown man for a price
(B) He hit the Dog as the Dog was eating the Elephant’s food
(C) He killed the Dog
(D) He complained to the King about the Dog
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

5. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage ?
(A) Friends and Enemies
(B) The Playful Dog
(C) The King and the Minister
(D) The Elephant-keeper
(E) The Bond of Friendship
Ans : (E)

6. Why was the Elephant taken care of ?
(A) He was a very special Elephant as he could talk to Dogs
(B) He was a very loyal Elephant
(C) He was the strongest Elephant in the Kingdom
(D) He was weak and the King had a lot of sympathy for him
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

7. Why did the Dog start going to the Elephant’s shed everyday ?
(A) He liked the Elephant a lot and wanted to become friends with him
(B) He was being fed by the King everyday
(C) He was fond of the Elephant’s shed
(D) He liked the taste of the rice being fed to the Elephant
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. What did the Dog do once he was set free ?
(A) He ate rice to his heart’s content
(B) He thanked the King for his kindness
(C) He ran away from the Kingdom to a place faraway
(D) He ran back to his friend the Elephant
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. What of the following can definitely be said about the Elephantkeeper ?
(1) He was greedy
(2) He was insensitive
(3) He was brave
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (C)

10. Which of the following can definitely be said about the King?
(1) He was compassionate
(2) He was deceitful
(3) He loved animals.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (1) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (2)
(E) All the three (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word/group of words which is most

similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as

used in the passage.

11. EXTRACTED
(A) Pulled
(B) Inserted
(C) Wing
(D) Dug out
(E) Received
Ans : (E)

12. DECLARATION
(A) Pact
(B) Praise
(C) Announcement
(D) Writ
(E) Resolve
Ans : (C)

13. KEEN
(A) Shallow
(B) Urgent
(C) Concentrated
(D) Deep
(E) Eager
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word/group of words which is most

opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as

used in the passage.

14. RESIST
(A) Give in
(B) Please
(C) Struggle
(D) Try out
(E) Defy
Ans : (A)

15. SEPARATED
(A) Stuck
(B) United
(C) Estranged
(D) Bound
(E) Joined
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given

below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the

sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and

‘No correction is required”, mark (E) as the answer.

16. Trisha could not solve the problem at all and was at her wit’s ending.
(A) her wit’s end
(B) the wit ends
(C) her witty end
(D) the wit end
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

17. It’s a small theatre and the seats are uncomfortable, but the saving

grace is that the air conditioning is good.
(A) grace to save
(B) gracing save
(C) saver grace
(D) save to grace
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

18. Tarun had to prepare the document for his meeting urgently but he was hardly

pressed for time.
(A) hard pressed for timely
(B) hard pressed for time
(C) hardly press to time
(D) hard pressing to timely
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

19. Suraj lied from his teeth to get out of the tense situation with his

boss—
(A) lies for his teeth
(B) lie to his teeth
(C) lied through his teeth
(D) lied from his tooth
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

20. Satish lay in bed wide awaken as he was worried about his exams

starting the next day—
(A) widen awakening
(B) widely awake
(C) wide and awake
(D) wide awake
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below, a sentence with four words

printed in bold types is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and

(D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt

or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly

spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the

words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the

context of the sentence. mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. People went crazy (A) when the musician along with his

friend, (B) took to the staging (C) and belted out

popular (D) tracks. All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

22. For a growing number of coupals, (A) adoption is not a helpless

compulsion (B) but also deliberate, (C) and often

noble, (D) choice. All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

23. On two consecutive (A) nights the two greatest icones

(B) of show business were honoured with unprecedented (C)

affection. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

24. We are so busy looking at mediocrity (A) that when truly outstanding

achievement (B) stares us in the face we resort (C) to

the same terms of praise. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

25. The unlikely migration (A) was officially (B)

explained as a move to meet expanding (C) business

oportunities. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3),

(4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the

questions given below them.
(1) He immediately acknowledged Mohan’s good work and invited him to his home for dinner.
(2) One day a wealthy merchant sent his son’s bicycle to the shop for repair.
(3) The next day the merchant came to claim the bicycle and noticed that it was shiny.
(4) After repairing the bicycle, Mohan cleaned it up and made it look new.
(5) Once upon a time, there was a boy named Mohan who worked as an apprentice in a bicycle

shop.
(6) Other apprentices in the shop laughed at Mohan for doing unnecessary work.

26. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after

rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (B)

27. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after

rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

28. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after

rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

29. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after

rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (A)

30. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after

rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 31– 40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any

grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the

sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (E).

(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. In about five minutes, they would (A) / cover the distance from the road to the point

(B) / where the waves would (C) / begin lick their feet. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

32. The devastating experiences (A) / of many wars taught some countries (B) / the

necessary of pursuing peace (C) / at the expense of nationalist egos. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

33. The former superstar recently (A) / visit an orphanage, (B) / fuelling speculation that

(C) / she is planning to adopt a child. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

34. Accordance to a new study (A) / taking steps to remain healthy and young (B) / may help

delay (C) / the onset of Alzheimer’s disease. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

35. A day after he was diagnosed with (A) / swine flu, preventive measures were put in

place (B) / to ensure that others were not (C) / affected by the dreaded virus. (D) No

error (E)
Ans : (B)

36. The administration has conclusive (A) / that it is retailers who are (B) / responsible

for upsetting (C) / the city’s household budget. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

37. The assurances, unfortunately, (A) / remained on paper, as (B) / neither the Centre or

the state initiated steps (C) / for the development of the backward region. (D) No error

(E)
Ans : (C)

38. Sediment deposit along the coast (A) / may be the primary reason for (B) / the change

in conditions, (C) / but a lot more remains to be understand. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

39. A committee will be set up (A) / to explore pros and cons by (B) / a common fee

structure, and will (C) / take a final decision on it within a week. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

40. The infection which causes (A) / gums to bleed and teeth to fall out (B) / results from

the build-up of (C) / a particular bacteria that is common to most mouths. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of

which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five

words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate

word in each case.

Once upon a time there was a prince who wanted to marry a princess; but she would have to

be a real princess. He …(41)… all over the world to find one, but nowhere

could he get what he wanted. One evening during a terrible storm; there was thunder and

lightning, and the rain poured down in torrents. Suddenly a knocking was

…(42)… at the palace door, and the old king went to open it. It was a

princess standing out there. But, good gracious ! What a sight the rain and the wind had

made her look. The water ran down her hair and clothes; into the toes of her shoes and out

again at the heels. And yet she insisted that she was a real princess. Well, we’ll soon

…(43)… out, thought the old queen. But she said nothing, went into the

bedroom, took all the bedding off the bedstead, and …(44)… a pea on the

bottom; then she took twenty mattresses and laid them on the pea, and then twenty quilts on

…(45)… of the mattresses. On this the princess had to lie all night. In

the …(46)… she was asked how she had slept. “Oh, very badly !” said she.

“I scarcely closed my eyes all night. Heaven only knows what was in the bed. But I was

lying on something hard, as a …(47)… I am black and blue all over my body.

It’s horrible !” Now they knew that she was a real princess because she had

…(48)… the pea right through the twenty mattresses and the twenty quilts.

Nobody but a real princess could be as …(49)… as that. So the prince took

her for his wife, for now he …(50)… that he had a real princess.

41. (A) called
(B) tour
(C) sent
(D) saw
(E) travelled
Ans : (E)

42. (A) made
(B) felt
(C) heard
(D) seen
(E) sounded
Ans : (C)

43. (A) assure
(B) find
(C) judge
(D) mark
(E) try
Ans : (B)

44. (A) drew
(B) flung
(C) placed
(D) cooked
(E) stitch
Ans : (C)

45. (A) top
(B) head
(C) bottom
(D) between
(E) middle
Ans : (A)

46. (A) morning
(B) dinner
(C) room
(D) fields
(E) dark
Ans : (A)

47. (A) vengeance
(B) price
(C) cause
(D) result
(E) time
Ans : (D)

48. (A) slept
(B) felt
(C) located
(D) carried
(E) found
Ans : (B)

49. (A) worried
(B) rough
(C) irritable
(D) sensitive
(E) pretty
Ans : (D)

50. (A) trust
(B) assured
(C) wanted
(D) think
(E) knew
Ans : (E)

I.D.B.I. (Executive) Exam : Solved Paper

2010-05-27T20:12:00.000-07:00

I.D.B.I. (Executive) Exam., 2009

English Language : Solved Paper

(Held on 13-12-2009)

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

As the price of gasoline spiked to record highs in 2007 and 2008, interest in alternatives to fossil fuels, and electric transportation in particular, also spiked. It raised, however, many questions about the true environmental impact of electric cars.

The electric car is being upheld as an ethical, green, nifty and cheap alternative to the carbon dioxideemitting automobiles clogging city roads around the world today. Though electric cars are not a popular choice, the industry’s future plans are riding high on the hope that on improving certain factors, (which are currently deficient) such as, effective marketing, a growing public awareness of the need for clean air and the increase in demand, the prices would eventually be driven down.

However, battery powered vehicles may still fail to completely replace liquid fuel-fed ones but with more electric and hybrid vehicles on the road, there is greater scope for a makeover in the way environment is impacted by the automobiles. However, if the power to charge the battery-operated vehicle is to be sourced from grids using conventional coal-fired power plants, the electric car wouldn’t really be all that green. These would actually cause an increase in demand on the power plant’s energy production causing them to produce more power and thus more pollution, unless greener ways of energy production are used. But as of now the bulk of the electricity used to charge the batteries of electric vehicles is generated by fossil fuel burning power stations and only 12% by the clean methods. Also, the amount of energy used by coal fired power stations to create the electricity to recharge electric vehicles make them half as efficient as diesel cars. Recent studies indicate that carbon emissions may reduce only by an insignificant level even if there is a sudden surge in demand for electric cars.

Other factors making the rechargeable cars less efficient include the amount of electricity lost in the journey between the coal fired power stations which generate it and the point where it recharges the car, and the energy lost by the faulty firstgeneration batteries and motors. The researchers calculated that of the energy burned in a power station, only a quarter reaches an electric car after leakages and losses along the supply chain, giving the vehicle an energy efficiency score of 24%. This amounts to more than 75% energy loss much before the car is even put on ignition. A modern diesel engine, by contrast, achieves 45% efficiency. This suggests that if fossil fuels are to be burned, it is much more efficient to do it within the engine of a vehicle rather than at a power station and then try to send it via the National Grid, where a lot of energy is wasted, and finally to store it in a battery which in itself might leak power.

Electric cars may still survive since the car’s emissions would be far less polluting than those that run on fossil fuels. With very minor emissions of sulphur caused when the batteries charge and discharge, when compared to current emissions standards, electric cars are zero emissions. The gasoline engine by comparison does not fare as well. Gasoline and diesel fuel burned in internal combustion engines for transportation account for 54 per cent of nitrites of oxygen, 89 per cent of carbon monoxide and 28 per cent of carbon dioxide pollution produced. Switching to electric vehicles drops those percentages to zero, and only slightly increases sulphur emissions. So even when the power plants burn dirty fuel, the amount of pollution is less than an oil burning car would create. And this picture is improving all the time, as clean energy sources are added to the grid.

The goal should be to make more electric cars with greater incentive for consumers and producers, as well as feeding grids with more power from renewable resources–as per the objectives stated in the numerous plans on Climate Changes. And till this goal is achieved, the debate whether controlling emission at a few power plants is more convenient than controlling emission at millions of tailpipes is, would continue.

1. Why does the author fear that the electric cars may eventually not be very eco-friendly ?
(A) The exhausts of these cars emit as much pollutants as the oil fuelled cars
(B) Electric cars, though have lesser quantity of other emissions, the sulphur emissions will rise substantially, thus harming the environment
(C) The electricity for charging the batteries of these cars comes from power plants using pollution causing fossil fuels
(D) Only (A) and (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

2 . What, according to the author, needs to be done in order to make electric cars more eco-friendly ?
(A) Encouraging powerplants to generate electricity using the eco-friendly methods
(B) Setting certain emission standards for electric cars as is done for the oil consuming cars
(C) Controlling Sulphur emissions which are one of the major contributors to environmental pollution at present
(D) Making provisions for easy availability of recharging sockets at all the places
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

3. Which of the following suggestions does the author make in order to popularize the electric cars ?
(A) Discontinue the use of fuel powered cars completely
(B) Optimize the benefits of using electric cars to both consumers as well as the producers
(C) To supply grids with renewable sources of energy for the production of electricity
(D) Only (B) and (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

4. Why, according to the author, are electric cars not a popular option among the people ?
(1) The recharging points are not easily available everywhere.
(2) Effective marketing of the eco-friendly cars has been lacking.
(3) Lack of appreciation among the people for the need of unpolluted air.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) All (1), (2) and (3)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

5. Why, according to the author, may the electric cars survive despite all their current deficiencies ?
(1) Electric cars will be subsidised and thus would prove to be cost efficient to the buyers.
(2) An increasing number of grids are shifting to alternate forms of energy production.
(3) In the future, incentives would be provided to those driving electric cars.
(4) Pollution caused by the electric cars is far less as compared to the fossil fuel driven cars.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (3) and (4)
(C) Only (2) and (4)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

6. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the passage ?
(A) The failure of the power grids
(B) The rise and fall of cars using fossil fuels
(C) The adverse effects of pollution caused by the power grids
(D) The growing popularity of the electric cars
(E) Why eco-friendliness of electric cars is a fiction at present
Ans : (D)

7. Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?
(A) Electric car may completely replace the fossil fuel powered cars one day
(B) Electric cars have brought about a drastic improvement in the pollution levels at present
(C) Electric cars have universally been accepted as the environment friendly cars
(D) All (A), (B) and (C) are true
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in context of the given passage ?
(A) Nearly three-fourth of the total energy generated for powering electric cars is wasted
(B) The interest in electric cars increased during the last year when most of the power grids shifted to clean sources of fuel
(C) Electric car engines do not produce by carbon emissions
(D) There would not be any noticeable improvement in the pollution level if the oil burning cars are shifted to electric cars at present
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. Why, according to the author, is the efficienty of the electric cars low even before they actually hit the roads ?
(1) A lot of energy is lost during the transit of electricity from the grid to the recharge point.
(2) The manufacturing cost of the electric cars is much higher than that of the other cars.
(3) The batteries and the motors of the electric cars are still relatively new and waste a lot of power.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (2)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 10–12) Choose the word / group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

10. PICTURE
(A) Situation
(B) Photograph
(C) Representation
(D) Art work
(E) Idea
Ans : (A)

11. FEEDING
(A) Eating
(B) Supplying
(C) Consuming
(D) Encouraging
(E) Nourishing
Ans : (B)

12. SURGE
(A) Alteration
(B) Modification
(C) Intensification
(D) Increase
(E) Evolution
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 13–15) Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

13. SLIGHTLY
(A) Adequately
(B) Miserly
(C) Certainly
(D) Remotely
(E) Substantially
Ans : (E)

14. SWITCHING
(A) Prolonging
(B) Withdrawing
(C) Continuing
(D) Exchanging
(E) Alternating
Ans : (B)

15. INCENTIVES
(A) Deterrents
(B) Preventions
(C) Disadvantages
(D) Prohibitions
(E) Liability
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 16–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence, the letter of that part will be the answer. If there is no error, mark (E) as the answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. Sheela had to travel all the way back (A) / when she remembered that (B) / she had forgot to take (C) / important documents with her. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

17. The party is holding a meeting (A) / in order to begin the (B) / painful and difficult process (C) / of rethink its political strategy. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

18. The only bad thing about (A) / these flowers are the (B) / pollen which causes (C) / allergy in many people. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

19. Nobody in the bus (A) / offered to give their seat (B) / to the elderly lady who had to (C) / travel a long distance. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

20. This is the only organization (A) / which could somehow continue (B) / to making profits (C) / in the face of recession. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

21. Many more would have died (A) / if they hadn’t received (B) / the timely helping from (C) / the relief team. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

22. A man along with (A) / his wife and two children (B) / were rescued with the help (C) / of an army helicopter. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

23. In the past two decades, (A) / preventive measures have (B) / drastically reduced the (C) / occurrence of polio in children. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

24. Neither the ministers (A) / nor the intelligence sources (B) / was aware of the coup (C) / being planned in the country. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

25. Certain amounts of stress (A) / at work is natural but (B) / it is important that one learns (C) / to keep it in the right proportion. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

26. An NGO is working towards providing free education to the girl child so that every girl can stand on their own feet.
(A) stands on their own
(B) stand on her own
(C) stand in her own
(D) stand on their own’s
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

27. The animal rescuers anesthetized the dog which had been with great pain after having met with an accident.
(A) which had been in
(B) which is being with
(C) who had been in
(D) who has been at
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

28. In its final decision, the court ruled that all the allegations levelled for the accused were false and baseless.
(A) allegation levelled against the
(B) allegations level against that
(C) allegations levelled against the
(D) allegations levelled with that
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

29. If I leave early from home, I could have made it on time to the airport.
(A) If I would leave early
(B) Had I leave earlier
(C) If I could left early
(D) had I left earlier
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

30. Thousands of fire-fighters were deployed at the factory when a fire suddenly broke out due to a short circuit.
(A) on the factory when
(B) at the factory while
(C) at that factory when
(D) in the factory while
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Rearrange the following sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow :
1. This decision on which force is to be maximized lies with every individual.
2. This belief comes from the fact that science reflects the social forces prevailing at a particular time.
3. We must maximize the constructive forces of science and the destructive ones should be minimized.
4. Contrary to popular belief, the greatest enemy of mankind is not science but war.
5. She/he must understand that science can only help us in providing ways to reach at either war or peace and is actually not responsible for causing these.
6. During peaceful times science is constructive and during war, science is perverted to destructive ends.

31. Which of the following sentence should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

32. Which of the following sentence should be the THIRD after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 3
Ans : (A)

33. Which of the following sentence should be the FIFTH after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

34. Which of the following sentence should be the FIRST after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

35. Which of the following sentence should be the SECOND after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 36–45) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/ phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.

Asteroids are rocks and debris which are the leftovers of the construction of our solar system. Most are in a belt, which …(36)… between Mars and Jupiter. However, the gravitational influence of the giant planets, like Jupiter, or an impact by a comet can knock these large rocks out of their orbit, thus hurling them …(37)… the Earth. Many bodies have struck Earth in the …(38)…, and a widely accepted theory blames the impact of an asteroid for the exinction of dinosaurs about 65 million years ago. The scale of such a disaster can be understood by the example of a relatively small-size asteroid strike in Siberia in early 20th century which …(39)… more than half a million acres of forest. However, what relieves the common man of the …(40)… regarding asteroid impact is the fact that many scientific groups are dedicated towards tracking the asteroid paths and orbit all around the year. With advanced equipments and technology, they can predict any upcoming danger much in …(41)…. According to them the chances of finding such an asteroid crossing Earth in this or the next five generation’s lifetime is only one in thousands. Even if such an asteroid is found out, there will be …(42)… of time to track it, measure its orbit precisely, and plan a system for …(43)… it from its orbit away from that of the Earth’s. There will be no great hurry, and no great panic. It would be a project for all the world’s nations to take part in. It could be a globally unifying event. Because it will be …(44)… long before it actually hits the Earth. It probably would take only a small measure such as chemical rockets, or perhaps an atomic explosion to divert it from a threatening path.

Thus, in short, it can be said that though the impact would pose enormous risk to all living forms on Earth, the odds of it occurring within our lifetimes is very …(45)… and it is unnecessary to run around believing that the sky is falling.

36. (A) rotates
(B) appears
(C) strikes
(D) encircle
(E) exists
Ans : (A)

37. (A) past
(B) around
(C) towards
(D) against
(E) inside
Ans : (C)

38. (A) future
(B) centuries
(C) earliest
(D) past
(E) history
Ans : (D)

39. (A) extinct
(B) devastated
(C) wasted
(D) shrivelled
(E) fell
Ans : (B)

40. (A) apprehension
(B) expectation
(C) distrust
(D) sufferings
(E) hesitation
Ans : (A)

41. (A) sooner
(B) accuracy
(C) advance
(D) time
(E) distance
Ans : (C)

42. (A) dearth
(B) loss
(C) most
(D) lack
(E) plenty
Ans : (E)

43. (A) blocking
(B) deflecting
(C) avoiding
(D) destroying
(E) changing
Ans : (B)

44. (A) experienced
(B) harmful
(C) perceived
(D) noticed
(E) devastating
Ans : (C)

45. (A) low
(B) large
(C) narrow
(D) high
(E) few
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 46–50) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

46. After having been friends for more than a decade, they had a ……… last year and have not ……… each other ever since.
(A) fight, talked
(B) argument, met
(C) dispute, seen
(D) quarrel, admired
(E) difference, introduced
Ans : (C)

47. The workers, several of ……… had complained about their low wages earlier have now ……… to move the court for the labour rights.
(A) who, indicated
(B) whom, decided
(C) which, threatened
(D) them, resolved
(E) number, warmed
Ans : (B)

48. The hutment dwellers were jubilant when the government ……… an apartment to each of them at ……… rates.
(A) demolished, fast
(B) announced, less
(C) provided, high
(D) acquired, low
(E) promised, subsidised
Ans : (E)

49. The organization was deeply …………by difficulties a decade ago but the new CEO brought
many ……… changes in it and took it to a new high.
(A) indebted, necessary
(B) plagued, vital
(C) coping, more
(D) hurt, critical
(E) shaken, inevitable
Ans : (B)

50. The prime minister who is ……… in his holiday home at the moment said that he was very ……… by the news of India winning the world cup.
(A) visiting, happy
(B) residing, obliged
(C) intruding, dejected
(D) staying, pleased
(E) resting, cheerful
Ans : (D)

IDBI Bank Executive Exam, 2009 : Fully Solved Paper

2010-05-27T06:47:00.000-07:00

IDBI Bank Executive Exam., 2009

Reasoning : Solved Paper

(Held on 13-12-2009)

1. If ‘M’ denotes ‘+’, ‘N’ denotes ‘÷’, ‘R’ denotes ‘–’ and Q denotes ‘x’ then—
15 M 12 Q 5 R 40 N 8 = ?
(A) 70
(B) 130
(C) 45
(D) 60
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

2. How many meaningful English words can be formed using the third, fifth, ninth and eleventh letters of the word ‘COMMANDMENT’ using each letter only once ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)

3. Seema correctly remembers that she took leave after 21st October and before 27th October. Her colleague Rita took leave on 23rd October but Seema was present on that day. If 24th October was a public holiday and 26th October was Sunday, on which day in October did Seema take leave ?
(A) 22nd October
(B) 25th October
(C) 22nd or 25th October
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 4 and 5) The following questions are based on the five three letter words given below—
PUN SAD CRY FOE STY
If each of the words is rearranged in alphabetical order then—
4. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word using each letter only once, from the first letters of each of the five words after the letters of each word are rearranged in alphabetical order, the last letter of that word is your answer. If more than one word can be formed, ‘X’ is the answer and if no such word can be formed then ‘W’ is the answer.
(A) E
(B) N
(C) X
(D) W
(E) S
Ans : (C)

5. How many words will remain unchanged even after their rearrangement in alphabetical order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

6. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘VERIFIED’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

7. The fare paying capacity of people who travel on routes connecting to small towns is very low. Most successful airlines which operate in such regions have a large number of seats.
Which of the following can be inferred from the above information ?
(A) Regional airlines are quite profitable.
(B) People from cities are increasingly travelling to small towns.
(C) Regional airlines have to charge low fares in order to be profitable.
(D) The number of people travelling from small towns to cities is massive.
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. If ‘A ×D’ means ‘A is the sister of D’, ‘A + D’ means ‘D is the daughter of A’ and ‘A ÷ D’ means ‘A is the mother of D’, then how will N is the aunt of M be denoted ?
(A) M + L ×N
(B) M ÷ L + N
(C) L ×N ÷ M
(D) N ×L ÷ M
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. M earns more than X and less than T. V earns more than M and T. R earns more than only X. Who earns the least among the five of them ?
(A) X
(B) V
(C) M
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

10. The Court has stayed proceedings against the stockbroker. He can now return to the country. Which of the following can be assumed from the given information ?
(A) The stockbroker is innocent.
(B) The police cannot arrest the stockbroker.
(C) The judge has been bribed.
(D) Complaints filed against the stockbroker have been withdrawn.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. A sits third to the left of C and second to the right of E. B sits second to the right of D who is not an immediate neighbour of E. H sits second to the left of F. G is not an immediate neighbour of D.

11. Which of the following pairs has only one person sitting-between them, if the counting is done in clockwise direction ?
(A) F, G
(B) H, G
(C) H, C
(D) H, B
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12. Who sits third to the right of E ?
(A) D
(B) G
(C) F
(D) B
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. What is the position of G with respect to A’s position ?
(A) Immediately to the right
(B) Second to the left
(C) Third to the right
(D) Third to the left
(E) Fourth to the right
Ans : (D)

14. Who sits between E and A ?
(A) F
(B) D
(C) G
(D) B
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

15. Starting from A’s position, if all the eight are arranged in alphabetical order in clockwise direction, the seating position of how many members (excluding A) would remain unchanged ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 16–23) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

16. Statements :
Some stoves are ovens.
All ovens are cylinders.
Some engines are stoves.
Some metals are cylinders.
Conclusions :
I. Some ovens are metals
II. Some cylinders are stoves
III. Some ovens are engines
IV. No engine is a cylinder
(A) None follows
(B) Only II and IV follow
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II follows
Ans : (E)

17. Statements :
Some cars are buses.
Some buses are trains.
All airplanes are trains.
All trucks are buses.
Conclusions :
I. Some airplanes are trucks.
II. Some cars are trains.
III. Some trucks are airplanes.
IV. No truck is train.
(A) None follows
(B) Only II and IV follow
(C) Only III and IV follow
(D) Only I and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

18. Statements :
Some tools are hammers.
All tools are trees.
Some trees are flowers.
No hammer is flower.
Conclusions :
I. All hammers are tools.
II. No tool is flower.
III. Some hammers are trees.
IV. Some flowers are tools.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I and either II or IV follow
(C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

19. Statements :
Some bags are pockets.
Some pockets are trousers.
All skirts are pockets.
Some belts are bags.
Conclusions :
I. Some trousers are belts.
II. Some skirts are bags.
III. No trouser is belt.
IV. Some skirts are trousers.
(A) All follow
(B) Only II and IV follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only either I or III follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

20. Statements :
Some cats are tigers.
All lions are cats.
Some horses are lions.
All horses are animals.
Conclusions :
I. Some lions are tigers.
II. No horse is tiger.
III. Some horses are cats.
IV. Some horses are tigers.
(A) None follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only III and either II or IV follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

21. Statements :
Some clocks are radios.
No radio is laptop.
Some fridges are clocks.
Some clocks are laptops.
Conclusions :
I. Some fridges are laptops.
II. No radio is fridge.
III. Laptops are either fridges or clocks.
IV. No laptop is fridge.
(A) Only II follows
(B) Only IV follows
(C) Only either I or IV follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. Statements :
Some notes are coins.
Some papers are plastics.
All coins are papers.
No note is cardboard.
Conclusions :
I. Some notes are papers.
II. Some coins are plastics.
III. No paper is cardboard.
IV. No note is plastic.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

23. Statements :
All stools are desks.
No desk is shelf.
All shelves are cupboards.
Some cupboards are mirrors.
Conclusions :
I. No mirror is shelf.
II. No stool is shelf.
III. No cupboard is desk.
IV. No mirror is desk.
(A) None follows
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only II, III and IV follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 24–28) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below—
M ? 2 D B 7 A 4 * 9 6 $ T + N 5 @ V E W # U 8 F © 3

24. How many such prime numbers are there in the given arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a symbol and preceded by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (B)

25. If the places of the symbols are interchanged with those of the numbers immediately following them in the given arrangement then which of the following will be the eleventh from the right end ?
(A) V
(B) @
(C) 5
(D) N
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

26. Which of the following is the seventh letter to the left of # ?
(A) A
(B) N
(C) T
(D) B
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

27. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
2 7 B 4 6 9 T 5 N ?
(A) @ W E
(B) 5 E V
(C) V U #
(D) V # W
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

28. If the symbols and numbers are dropped from the given arrangement and then the letters are rearranged in alphabetical order which of the following will be the sixth from the left end ?
(A) M
(B) F
(C) N
(D) E
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 29–33) Below in each question are given two statements (I) and (II). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and then decide which of the
following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer—
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
(C) if both statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) if both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) if both statements I and II are effects of some common causes.

29. I. There has been mass recruitment of IT professionals by Indian IT companies
II. Many developed countries are increasingly outsourcing IT related functions to India and China.
Ans : (B)

30. I. Many farmers have given up jute cultivation as it is no longer economically viable.
II. The textile ministry has proposed a hike in the Minimum Support Price of jute.
Ans : (A)

31. I. The government is considering changes in the Land Acquisition Act.
II. Several large infrastructure development projects have been stalled due to unavailability of land.
Ans : (E)

32. I. The Government is considering the possibility of involving private sector companies in highway construction projects.
II. The implementation of many highway projects undertaken by government agencies is behind schedule in various states.
Ans : (B)

33. I. The price of aircraft fuel has risen during the past few months.
II. Many passenger airlines in India have been forced to cut their air fares by about 10 per cent.
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 34–40) In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the coding system and mark the letter of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (E) i.e., ‘None of these’ as your answer.
Letter :
W R A P G B M U S E F T N D
Digit/Symbol Codes :
$ 8 ! 2 7 # 9 @ ? 5 b 4 * 6
Conditions :
I. If the middle letter is a vowel, the codes for the first and the fourth letters are to be interchanged.
II. If the first two letters are consonants, the first letter is to be coded, no code may be given to the second letter and the remaining three letters are to be coded.
III. If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant both are to be coded as the code for the consonant.

34. NEAST—
(A) ?5!*4
(B) ?5!4*
(C) 4*!5?
(D) 45!?
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

35. DAEWP—
(A) 6!5$2
(B) $!562
(C) 6!52$
(D) $265!
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

36. PEFTG—
(A) 25b42
(B) 2b4G
(C) 25b47
(D) 47b25
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

37. SMGBE—
(A) ?975#
(B) 97#5?
(C) ?97#5
(D) ?#79?
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

38. UGREN—
(A) *785@
(B) *785*
(C) @785@
(D) @85*
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

39. RBMFN—
(A) 8#9b4
(B) b*98#
(C) 89b*
(D) 8#9b*
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

40. MUTWA—
(A) 9@$4!
(B) 94$!
(C) 94@!$
(D) 9@4$!
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions-(Q. 41-50) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow—

A bank is disbursing educational loans to meritorious students. Loans will be made available to applicants who possess the following criteria.
The candidate must—
I. Be a citizen of India
II. Have secured admission to a post graduate course (Masters or P. G. Diploma) offered by an Indian or foreign university in India.
III. Have secured 60 per cent marks in the entrance examination for the course.
IV. Have security (property/LIC policy) equivalent to the loan amount.
However if the applicant fulfils the above mentioned criteria except—
(1) At (II) above the case may be referred to the Loan committee.
(2) At (IV) above guarantee of a third party who has an account with the bank may be obtained.
Mark answer :
(A) If the loan is to be sanctioned.
(B) If the loan is to be rejected.
(C) If the loan is to be referred to the loan committee.
(D) If guarantee from an account holder is needed.
(E) If the data provided is inadequate to take a decision.

41. Shruti has secured admission to MNV University in Chennai for a post-graduate degree in management. She obtained 65 per cent in the entrance test for the course. She has an Indian passport.
Ans : (E)

42. Milind has applied and secured admission for a post-graduate degree in advertising at MIC University Ahmedabad. He has an LIC policy equivalent to the loan amount. He secured 70 per cent in his graduation and is an Indian citizen.
Ans : (A)

43. Prakash has applied for a postgraduate course in IT and Animation which will commence from January in Kolkata. He has secured admission to the course having obtained 60 per cent in the written entrance test.
His uncle who has an account with the bank is willing to stand guarantor.
Ans : (E)

44. Anil is an Indian science graduate who has secured admission for a Masters degree in Computer Science from a prestigious Indian University. He stood first in the entrance test with 82 per cent marks. His family is willing to use their house, which is equivalent in value to the loan amount, as security. He will stay with his uncle in Dubai during the course.
Ans : (A)

45. Nikhil’s part time P.G. Diploma in Management will begin in December. He secured 65 per cent in the All India entrance exam and has secured admission to a college in Mumbai. He has requested a transfer for the
duration of the course. He has an LIC policy equivalent to the loan amount. Nikhil holds an Indian passport.
Ans : (A)

46. Maria secured 75% in the entrance exam to NVT College Pune and has obtained admission. An Indian national she has the necessary property to offer as security for the loan amount. The duration of her undergraduate degree course in Computer Applications is 3 years.
Ans : (E)

47. Deepa obtained 70 per cent in her engineering entrance exam for her Masters and has secured admission to the college of her choice. She has an LIC policy equivalent in value to the loan amount. Her interview to obtain a visa for her course in the U.S. is on November 25. She is an Indian citizen.
Ans : (A)

48. Sudhir has applied for a postgraduate degree in Pharmacy at All India Institute at New Delhi. He is an Indian citizen and having secured 60 per cent in his entrance exam, he has been granted admission. He does not have any property to use as security. His father who has an account with the bank is willing to guarantee the loan.
Ans : (D)

49. Anandi has secured admission for a P.G. Diploma in Management at a University in Allahabad with 72 per cent in the entrance examination. She has an LIC Policy amounting to the loan amount. She is an Indian citizen.
Ans : (A)

50. Ravi has obtained admission to the Indian Institute of Research at Chandigarh for a Masters in Mathematics offered only to Indian citizens. He secured 68 per cent in the entrance test. He does not have any security against the loan. However his employer who has an account with the bank is willing to guarantee the loan.
Ans : (D)

Baroda Rajasthan Gramin Bank Clerk Exam, 2010 : Fully Solved

2010-05-27T06:29:00.000-07:00

Baroda Rajasthan Gramin Bank Clerk Exam., 2010
Held on 21-02-2010
English Language : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

During the reign of King Veer, there lived a wise magistrate. Haripant’s verdicts were always just and people from all over the vast kingdom came to him in order to settle their disputes. In the city where Haripant lived, there was a greedy ghee merchant named Niranjan. He always kept twenty barrels of ghee. Of these, fifteen would contain good quality ghee and the remaining would be adulterated. He would mix the two and sell it. This went on for a long time, till finally the people fed up of being cheated, complained to Haripant.

Haripant had the ghee examined and found it to be adulterated. He gave Niranjan a choice of punishment– drink the five barrels of adulterated ghee from his shop, or receive a hundred lashings, or pay a thousand gold coins to the treasury. Niranjan thought for a while. Losing a thousand gold coins was too much and a hundred lashings too painful. So he decided to drink the five barrels of ghee. Though Niranjan sold adulterated goods in his shop, he made sure his own food was of the best quality. So after drinking one barrel of ghee he began to feel sick. By the second barrel, he was vomiting. At this point he decided to opt for the lashings instead. But he was pampered and his body was unused to any harsh treatment. After ten lashes, he started trembling and by twenty he was giddy. ‘Stop !’ he screamed. ‘I will pay the thousand gold coins !’ And he handed them over.

So he ended up suffering all three punishments, something he did not forget in a hurry and the people of the city got to use only the best quality ghee in their food from then on !

1. Why did Niranjan keep five barrels of adulterated ghee ?
(A) To sell to customers who could not afford high quality ghee
(B) To make a profit by cheating people
(C) Being a miser he kept the low quality ghee for his family
(D) Demand for this ghee was low so he kept only a small quantity
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

2. Why did the people decide to go to Haripant with their complaint ?
(A) He was close to the King and would get justice for them
(B) They knew Niranjan was afraid of Haripant who punished people severely
(C) They were confident that he would listen to their complaint and give a fair judgement
(D) He was the only magistrate in the entire kingdom
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

3. Why did Haripant allow Niranjan to choose his own punishment ?
(A) He felt sorry for Niranjan
(B) Niranjan’s offence was minor
(C) He did not want Niranjan to appeal to the King for leniency
(D) He did not want to give the wrong punishment
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. Which of the following can be said about Niranjan ?
1. He took a lot of time to make any decision.
2. He only cheated those who would not dare complain against him.
3. He was allergic to ghee and fell sick whenever he consumed it.
(A) None
(B) Only 1
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

5. Why did Niranjan decide to drink adulterated ghee for his punishment ?
(A) Since the barrels were from his shop he thought he could substitute the adulterated ghee with good ghee
(B) He wanted to prove that the quality of ghee he sold was good
(C) He was greedy and had a big appetite so he thought he would easily drink the ghee
(D) He considered it the easiest of the punishments as he did not realise what effect the ghee would have on him
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. How did Haripant arrive at the conclusion that Niranjan sold adulterated ghee ?
(A) Niranjan was ill when he drank the ghee from his shop
(B) He had the ghee tested to see if it was adulterated
(C) He trusted the word of those who had complained to him
(D) He too was duped by Niranjan
(E) Niranjan admitted his guilt when confronted
Ans : (B)

7. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage ?
1. Niranjan’s customers were so angry that they beat him mercilessly.
2. King Veer’s kingdom was large.
3. Niranjan had a very good memory.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. What made Niranjan opt for paying the fine last of all ?
(A) He would be deeply in debt if he paid it
(B) He knew Haripant would keep the money for himself
(C) No one was willing to lend him money
(D) He could not bear to part with such a huge sum
(E) His business would be ruined if he paid such a large fine
Ans : (D)

9. What effect did Niranjan’s punishment have ?
(A) All the merchants learnt their lesson and supplied only good quality ghee
(B) Niranjan lost all his customers and had to close down his shop
(C) People began to fear Haripant because of his severe punishments
(D) Niranjan gave in to all his customers’ demands even if it meant making a loss
(E) Niranjan improved the quality of the ghee that he sold
Ans : (A)

10. Why did Niranjan suffer three punishments ?
(A) He had cheated so many people that his punishment had to be severe
(B) Haripant had ordered this so that Niranjan would never repeat his offence
(C) Haripant wanted to make an example of him so that other merchants would not cheat their customers
(D) Niranjan could not decide which punishment to undergo so Haripant awarded him all the three punishments
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. SETTLE
(A) Resolve
(B) Occupy
(C) Compromise
(D) Arrange
(E) Quiet
Ans : (A)

12. CHEATED
(A) Unfaithful
(B) Blamed
(C) Exploited
(D) Prevented
(E) Dodged
Ans : (E)

13. SUFFERING
(A) Hardship
(B) Distressing
(C) Hurting
(D) Experiencing
(E) Trouble
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 14-15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. BEST
(A) Damaged
(B) Inferior
(C) Spoiled
(D) Defective
(E) Cheap
Ans : (B)

15. UNUSED
(A) Accustomed
(B) Routine
(C) Often
(D) Normal
(E) Repeated
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. Since books are quite expensive that many children do not have access to them.
(A) More expensive than
(B) So expensive that
(C) Very expensive
(D) Too expensive for
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

17. At the meeting they told us what kind of difficulties we may likely to face while establishing a rural branch.
(A) May like to face
(B) Were being faced
(C) Could be likely face
(D) Would be likely to face
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

18. What response you get to the proposal that you circulated among our investors ?
(A) Responses have you
(B) Response did you
(C) Were your responses
(D) Did you respond
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

19. One of our representatives will meet you at the airport and accompanies you to our office.
(A) And accompany you
(B) To accompany
(C) Accompanying you
(D) Will be accompanied by you
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

20. I knew that because I refused to accept the old man’s gift I would hurt his feelings.
(A) Not to refuse
(B) By refusal
(C) If I refused
(D) Should I refused
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. It is better to seek (A) advice (B) from a financial consultant (C) on how to safe (D) your business. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

22. This is the list (A) of people who should be insisted (B) to participate (C) in the conference. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

23. The impact (A) of those schemes (B) was visible (C) after a decade. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

24. Since this offer is available (A) for a limited (B) period alone (C) you should register (D) immediately. All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

25. I patently (A) explained (B) to the customer that it was not possible (C) to fulfil his request. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) Thus they teach us that no matter how insignificant you think you are, you can accomplish extraordinary things.
(2) During the course of its life it was struck by lightning fourteen times.
(3) But one day it was attacked by an army of beetles.
(4) The tree stood at the foot of the Himalayas for over four hundred years.
(5) The tiny insects ate their way through the tree and destroyed it.
(6) It even survived innumerable storms and avalanches.

26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (A)

28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

29. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

30. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. My cousin’s wedding provided (A) / me with the chance (B) / to meet which relatives I (C) / had not met for a long time. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

32. There are floods in this (A) / region last year but (B) / many of the victims have (C) / not yet been compensated. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

33. We must ensure that (A) / all our records (B) / are computerised (C) / for next year. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

34. In order to impart (A) / training to bank employees (B) / we are setting up (C) / centres at various location. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

35. When Rahul reached (A) / the office there was (B) / nobody there so (C) / he sat down to wait. No error (E)
Ans : (E)

36. I shall have to check (A) / our records to find out (B) / how much cheques (C) / have been collected so far. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

37. Our first task as (A) / board members is (B) / to decide on what we (C) / should spend these funds. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

38. She was lucky (A) / to find a good paying (B) / job as soon (C) / as she graduated. (D) No error (E)
Ans : E)

39. For the last six months (A) / Seema has been asking them (B) / to refund the money but (C) / there is been no action. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

40. He promised to get (A) / in touch with myself (B) / as soon as he had (C) / the information I needed. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

A professor was …(41)… the Indian Independence Movement and the idea of non-violence …(42)… by Mahatma Gandhi. “Although others like Nelson Mandela followed this idea and …(43)… the Nobel Prize for Peace Mahatma Gandhi did not,” she said. One student spoke up, “It is good that he didn’t, …(44)… it was an award started by Alfred Nobel who invented dynamite, which causes …(45)… !”

The professor …(46)…. “In fact the world should be …(47)… to Nobel because he invented dynamite. It was very useful to build tunnels …(48)… mountains for trains to pass. If we choose to use it for war it is not his fault. Furthermore he …(49)… all his wealth into instituting prizes for literature, physics, chemistry, medicine, peace, etc. His …(50)… was that anything which would benefit the human race deserved recognition so that the person who had started it would have no financial difficulties in achieving his goal”.

41. (A) lecturing
(B) talking
(C) discussing
(D) speaking
(E) arguing
Ans : (A)

42. (A) originate
(B) specialised
(C) start
(D) conceived
(E) thought
Ans : (D)

43. (A) awarded
(B) given
(C) presented
(D) win
(E) received
Ans : (E)

44. (A) that
(B) get
(C) accept
(D) though
(E) since
Ans : (E)

45. (A) blast
(B) ruins
(C) destruction
(D) bombs
(E) damages
Ans : (C)

46. (A) disagreed
(B) answers
(C) shouted
(D) upset
(E) agreed
Ans : (A)

47. (A) dedicated
(B) grateful
(C) appreciated
(D) thanking
(E) cursing
Ans : (B)

48. (A) from
(B) through
(C) over
(D) under
(E) within
Ans : (D)

49. (A) put
(B) left
(C) gave
(D) donated
(E) contributed
Ans : (C)

50. (A) decision
(B) logic
(C) cause
(D) excuse
(E) discovery
Ans : (B)

Indian Economy Objective Questions

2010-05-20T08:17:00.000-07:00

1. The work population ratio among men in urban areas has been estimated highest at 56% for the religion—
(A) Hindu
(B) Muslim
(C) Christians
(D) Hindu and Muslim both
Ans : (A)

2. Which state produces maximum Soyabean ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Bihar
(D) Rajasthan
Ans : (A)

3. Which state produces maximum rice in the country ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (A)

4. Which States produces maximum pulses in the country ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (A)

5. What percentage of country’s demand for natural rubber is met by indigenous production ?
(A) 80%
(B) 86%
(C) 97%
(D) 100%
Ans : (C)

6. Comprehensive Crop Insurance Scheme was introduced in—
(A) April 1985
(B) April 1988
(C) October 1992
(D) October 1993
Ans : (A)

7. Which sector has the maximum weights in Industrial Production Index ?
(A) Manufacturing
(B) Mining
(C) Electricity
(D) Agriculture
Ans : (A)

8. National Agriculture Policy aims the growth rate—
(A) Above 4% p.a.
(B) Above 3% p.a.
(C) Above 2•5% p.a.
(D) Above 5% p.a.
Ans : (A)

9. Kasturba Gandhi Education Scheme is related to—
(A) Girl education
(B) Adult education
(C) Child Labour education
(D) Tribal women (above 18 years)
Ans : (A)

10. ‘Earn while you learn’ scheme has been launched by—
(A) Ministry of Human Resource
(B) Ministry of Tourism
(C) Ministry of Rural Development
(D) Ministry of Youth
Ans : (B)

11. World Wetlands Day is celebrated on—
(A) February 1
(B) February 2
(C) February 4
(D) February 6
Ans : (B)

12. Indian Railways earn the maximum revenue from—
(A) Passenger fare
(B) Freight
(C) Traffic tax
(D) Passenger tax
Ans : (B)

13. Which state stands first in the length of roads in the country ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
Ans : (A)

14. What is open sky scheme ?
(A) Export promotion scheme of Civil Aviation Ministry
(B) Free economy policy
(C) Tax free policy
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

15. Open Added Money Market Scheme was firstly introduced by—
(A) UTI
(B) IDBI
(C) ICICI
(D) LIC
Ans : (B)

16. Which revenue earned by the Union Government is not distributed among State Government ?
(A) Income Tax
(B) Excise Duty
(C) Custom Duty
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

17. ‘Rail Neer’ was introduced in the railway budget of the year—
(A) 2002-03
(B) 2001-02
(C) 2000-01
(D) 1999-2000
Ans : (A)

18. In ‘Mixed Recall Period’ (MRP) estimates of poverty in India, NSSO has compared 2004-05 poverty statistics with the statistics of the year—
(A) 1993-94
(B) 1997-98
(C) 2000-01
(D) 2001-02
Ans : (A)

19. Newly constituted organisation IORARC (Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation) has a membership of—
(A) 7 countries
(B) 10 countries
(C) 21 countries
(D) 14 countries
Ans : (D)

20. How many State Finance Corporations (SFCs) are working in India at present ?
(A) 18
(B) 22
(C) 20
(D) 28
Ans : (A)

General Awareness for Economy

2010-05-20T08:15:00.000-07:00

1. The demand for agriculture product mainly depends upon—
(A) Increase in agriculture area
(B) Increase in population
(C) Increase in income
(D) Fall in price
Ans : (B)

2. Asian Development Fund was created by—
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) World Bank
(C) IMF
(D) SAARC
Ans : (A)

3. Bhandari Committee was related to—
(A) The entry of private units in telecommunication sector
(B) The reorganisation of Railway Zones
(C) The reconstruction of RRB
(D) The reforms in oil sector
Ans : (C)

4. What is Green Gold ?
(A) Tea
(B) Coffee
(C) Gold
(D) Rice
Ans : (A)

5. The headquartes of ILO is at—
(A) Washington
(B) Geneva
(C) The Hague
(D) Manila
Ans : (B)

6. The headquarters of EEC is in—
(A) Brussels
(B) Maastricht
(C) Washington
(D) London
Ans : (A)

7. The thickest layer of coal is found at—
(A) Singrauli
(B) Dhanbad
(C) Barauni
(D) Sohagpur
Ans : (A)

8. After the inclusion of Coal India Limited (CIL) in ‘Nav Ratna’ umbrella, in October 2008, the total number of ‘Nav Ratna’ companies goes to—
(A) 16
(B) 17
(C) 18
(D) 20
Ans : (C)

9. What is ‘Mercosur’ ?
(A) A programme of World Bank for accelerating development work in backward countries
(B) Free Trade Zone of nations of South America
(C) A treaty between Iran and Iraq
(D) A treaty between India and Nepal for trade
Ans : (B)

10. The headquarters of OPEC (Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries) is at—
(A) Viena
(B) Kuwait City
(C) Algeria
(D) Tehran
Ans : (A)

11. National Council on Climate Change has been constituted on—
(A) May 5, 2007
(B) May 25, 2007
(C) June 5, 2007
(D) June 25, 2007
Ans : (C)

12. Which institution provides long run finance to industries ?
(A) UTI
(B) LIC
(C) GIC
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

13. New Integrated Train Enquiry System has been launched on July 17, 2007 with number to be dialed as—
(A) 131
(B) 137
(C) 138
(D) 139
Ans : (D)

14. Railway Budget in India was separated from general budget in—
(A) 1924-25
(B) 1941-42
(C) 1947-48
(D) 1950-51
Ans : (A)

15. What is true for Service Tax as proposed in 2010-11 budget ?
(A) It is accepted at 15%
(B) It is increased from 8% to 12%
(C) It is increased from 10% to 12%
(D) No change in tax rate
Ans : (D)

16. Which is true for ‘Indian Tourism Development Corporation’ ?
(A) It is a public sector enterprise
(B) It was constituted in 1966
(C) It constructs and manages Hotels and Restaurants at various parts of country
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

17. National Sample Survey (NSS) was established in—
(A) 1950
(B) 1951
(C) 1952
(D) 1947
Ans : (A)

18. In which fuel, the government has decided to mix ‘marker’ for identifying adulteration ?
(A) Kerosene
(B) Diesel
(C) Petrol
(D) All of these
Ans : (A)

19. Which statement is true for Gold Bond Scheme ?
(A) Minimum limit of gold deposit is 500 gms.
(B) No upper limit of gold deposit
(C) No investigation of source of deposited gold
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

20. According to the latest amendment in Banking Regulation Act, nationalised bank can release a share of total paid up capital upto a maximum ceiling of—
(A) 40%
(B) 49%
(C) 51%
(D) 100%
Ans : (B)

General Awareness for Bank PO's and Clerks

2010-05-20T08:14:00.001-07:00

1. The new share Price Index (in dollar value) of Mumbai Share Market is—
(A) Dolex
(B) Urex
(C) Forex
(D) Sensex
Ans : (A)

2. Tata Hydro Electric Project is a joint enterprise of India and—
(A) Nepal
(B) Maldeev
(C) Bhutan
(D) Bangladesh
Ans : (C)

3. Diamond mines in India are at—
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Bihar
(D) Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (B)

4. Who is the originator of Green Revolution in India ?
(A) Norman E. Borlaug
(B) M. S. Swaminathan
(C) Garry Backer
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

5. Which one is the leading state in the production of groundnut ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Gujarat
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (B)

6. Which state uses the maximum area for producing coffee ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Gujarat
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (A)

7. World Bank sanctions $ 400 million loan for building 412 MW Rampur Hydel Project which belongs to—
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) West Bengal
(C) Haryana
(D) Himachal Pradesh
Ans : (D)

8. Which of the following is a Kharif crop ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Gram
(D) Barley
Ans : (B)

9. The difference between GDP and NDP is—
(A) Government revenue
(B) Net Indirect Tax
(C) Consumption of fixed capital
(D) Net capital formation
Ans : (C)

10. NABARD set a target to promote 47,000 new Self-Help Groups (SHGs) in a state in 2007-08 and provide credit support to all of them. This state was—
(A) West Bengal
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Karnataka
Ans : (A)

11. Which of the following is not part of World Bank Group ?
(A) IBRD
(B) IFC
(C) IDA
(D) ADB
Ans : (D)

12. On the basis of GDP, which economy is the largest economy in the world ?
(A) USA
(B) Britain
(C) Japan
(D) China
Ans : (A)

13. Which plan has been extended upto both rural and urban areas ?
(A) Prime Ministers Employment Scheme
(B) Jawahar Rojgar Yojana
(C) Nehru Rojgar Yojana
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

14. The leading Indian company in field of Mcap is—
(A) ONGC
(B) Indian Oil
(C) Reliance Industries Ltd.
(D) State Bank of India
Ans : (C)

15. At what place Indian economy stands in the world on the basis of PPP rating ?
(A) Second
(B) Fourth
(C) Sixth
(D) Tenth
Ans : (B)

16. Which organisation is being planned to be given the status of Micro Finance Regulating Authority in the Micro Financial Sector (Development and Regulation) Bill 2007 recently introduced in the Parliament ?
(A) SIDBI
(B) NABARD
(C) SBI
(D) IDBI
Ans : (B)

17. Which country produces maximum tea in the world ?
(A) India
(B) China
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Japan
Ans : (A)

18. Which state in India produces maximum mica ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Orissa
(D) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans : (B)

19. First share market in India was established in—
(A) Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C) Kolkata
(D) Chennai
Ans : (B)

20. Which goods is not imported from India ?
(A) Iron ore
(B) Petroleum
(C) Cotton
(D) Machinery
Ans : (A)

Bank P.O. General Awareness

2010-05-20T08:12:00.000-07:00

1. Which factor among the following creates obstacle in measuring correct estimate of national income ?
(A) Existence of non-monetised sector
(B) Low rate of savings
(C) Under employment
(D) Inflation
Ans : (A)

2. What target has been fixed for route km. in rail budget for 2010-11 ?
(A) 1021 km.
(B) 921 km.
(C) 821 km.
(D) 721 km.
Ans : (A)

3. Which of the following is the highest exportoriented handicrafts (in value terms) in Indian exports ?
(A) Gem and ornaments
(B) Leather goods
(C) Brass goods
(D) Ivory goods
Ans : (A)

4. In Sugar consumption in the world India is placed at—
(A) First rank
(B) Second rank
(C) Third rank
(D) Fourth rank
Ans : (A)

5. To which level, infant Mortality Rate is targeted to get reduced in 11th Plan ?
(A) 45 per thousand
(B) 35 per thousand
(C) 28 per thousand
(D) 55 per thousand
Ans : (C)

6. The country producing the maximum silk in the world is—
(A) India
(B) China
(C) Japan
(D) South Korea
Ans : (B)

7. The maximum labour-oriented industry in India is—
(A) Cement Industry
(B) Iron and Steel Industry
(C) Jute Industry
(D) Cotton Industry
Ans : (D)

8. The oil refinery established at Panipat belongs to—
(A) Public Sector
(B) Private Sector
(C) Joint Sector
(D) Cooperative Sector
Ans : (A)

9. In which crop India stands first in the world ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Cotton
Ans : (C)

10. In which part of the country the forests of sandalwood is found to the maximum ?
(A) Hills of Assam
(B) Hills of Shivalik
(C) Hills of Neelgiri
(D) Hills of Satpuda
Ans : (C)

11. What is the growth registered in export of farm sector between 2007-08 and 2009-10 ?
(A) About 40%
(B) About 30%
(C) About 20%
(D) About 10%
Ans : (A)

12. As per unemployment survey made by NSSO, which religion shows the highest Work Population Ratio (WPR) among men in rural areas ?
(A) Hindu
(B) Muslim
(C) Christians
(D) All above religions show equal WPR
Ans : (C)

13. Rs. 1 lakh Nano car was unveiled in 9th Auto Expo 2008 by—
(A) Bajaj Group
(B) Tata Group
(C) Maruti-Suzuki Group
(D) Mahindra Group
Ans : (B)

14. Among the list of 165 countries, India has been placed in Economic Freedom Index (compiled by US-based Haritage Foundation) at—
(A) 126th rank
(B) 120th rank
(C) 115th rank
(D) 102nd rank
Ans : (C)

15. The number of new trains and Duranto trains introduced in Railway Budget 2010-11 respectively stand at—
(A) 57 & 15
(B) 55 & 12
(C) 57 & 14
(D) 54 & 10
Ans : (D)

16. Which country stands first in Maize production ?
(A) India
(B) China
(C) America
(D) Russia
Ans : (C)

17. Who is not the member of National Development Council ?
(A) Governors of the State
(B) Chief Ministers of the State
(C) Administrators of Union Territory
(D) All ministers of Union Cabinet
Ans : (A)

18. Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises has proposed to Planning Commission to merge two on-going employment generation schemes. These schemes are—
(A) SJGSY and PMRY
(B) PMRY and RLEGP
(C) RLEGP and SJGSY
(D) PMRY and NREP
Ans : (B)

19. Visible and Invisible items of debit and credit are the part of—
(A) Import-export Policy
(B) Balance of Payment
(C) Balance of Trade
(D) Annual Budget
Ans : (B)

20. How many districts were identified in the first phase of National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme 2005 ?
(A) 150
(B) 200
(C) 250
(D) 300
Ans : (B)

General Awareness for Bank Exams

2010-05-20T08:08:00.000-07:00

1. ‘Planning and the Poor’ book is written by—
(A) David Ricardo
(B) B. S. Minhas
(C) Gunnar Myrdal
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

2. A summit on Sustainable Development and Climate Change was held on February 7, 2008 in—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Shimla
(C) Nainital
(D) Dehradun
Ans : (A)

3. The first chemical port of India for exportimport of chemical products was established at—
(A) Gopalpura
(B) Kakinada
(C) Daheg (Distt. Bharonch)
(D) Kundapur (Karnataka)
Ans : (C)

4. Cooperative movement in India took place in—
(A) 1934
(B) 1914
(C) 1904
(D) 1947
Ans : (C)

5. Which state ensures the maximum production of coffee in India ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Kerala
Ans : (B)

6. Indian production of the tea in the world stands—
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
Ans : (A)

7. Antyodaya Anna Yojana was launched on—
(A) 13 April, 2000
(B) 20 December, 2000
(C) 25 December, 2000
(D) 1st January, 2001
Ans : (C)

8. Which measure comes under quantitative credit controls adopted by Central Bank of the Country ?
(A) Bank Rate
(B) Open Market Operations
(C) Cash Reserve Ratio
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

9. The government has constituted a committee to decide a new norm for estimating population below poverty line. The Chairman of the committee is—
(A) S. S. Tarapore
(B) Ashok Ganguly
(C) Suresh Tendulkar
(D) P. C. Jha
Ans : (C)

10. GCIL—an American company of chemical sector has been acquired by—
(A) Shriram Group
(B) Reliance Group
(C) Birla Group
(D) Tata Group
Ans : (D)

11. New National Food Security Mission (NFSM) with an expenditure of Rs. 4882 crore in the 11th plan aims at ensuring adequate supply of—
(A) Rice, Cereals, Pulses
(B) Wheat, Cereals, Pulses
(C) Rice, Wheat, Pulses
(D) Rice, Cereals, Wheat
Ans : (C)

12. In which state a luxury train ‘Golden Chariot’ has been launched on the lines of ‘Palace on Wheels’ ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (A)

13. In broad sense the objective of Indian Planning is—
(A) To accelerate industrial production
(B) To increase national income
(C) To create and increase employment opportunities
(D) To ensure growth with justice
Ans : (D)

14. The growth rate of Gross Fixed Capital Formation in 2008-09 was about—
(A) 31%
(B) 32%
(C) 33%
(D) 39%
Ans : (C)

15. Which rural schemes were merged with Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana ?
(A) TRYSEM and MNP
(B) DPAP and IRDP
(C) NREP and RLEGP
(D) IRDP and TRYSEM
Ans : (C)

16. The apex organisation of industrial finance in India is—
(A) IDBI
(B) RBI
(C) ICICI
(D) IFCI
Ans : (A)

17. IMF is the result of—
(A) Hawana conference
(B) Rome conference
(C) Brettonwood conference
(D) Geneva conference
Ans : (C)

18. Primary gold is a gold of—
(A) 20 carat
(B) 22 carat
(C) 23 carat
(D) 24 carat
Ans : (D)

19. What is OPEC ?
(A) The latest space shuttle of USA
(B) The latest space drive of Russia
(C) Organisation of oil producing companies of India
(D) Organisation of oil exporting countries
Ans : (D)

20. Which state ensures highest production of Potato in the country ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Punjab
(C) Haryana
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (A)

Allahabad Bank Clerk Exam : English Language (Solved Paper)

2010-05-02T19:48:00.001-07:00

Allahabad Bank Clerk Exam., 2010 [Held on 14-3-2010 (Second Shift)]
English Language : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Keshav and Yash lived in neighbouring villages. Once, a fair was held nearby and they set off from their homes hoping to do some business there. Keshav filled his sack with cheap cotton, overlaid it with a layer of fine wool, and set off for the fair. Meanwhile Yash, collected some old clothes, put a layer of sheer cotton on top and made his way to the fair. Each stopped to rest under a tree and got to talking. “I have the finest wool in my sack,” boasted Keshav Not to be outdone, Yash said, “I have cotton of the most superior quality.”

The two struck a deal. They would exchange their goods and since wool was more expensive, Yash would pay Keshav an extra rupee. But Yash had no money on him. So after agreeing to pay Keshav later, they went home, laughing at each other’s folly. It did not take them long to discover that they had been duped. The next day, Keshav landed at Yash’s house. “You cheat! Give me my rupee at least.” Yash was untroubled by Keshav’s words, “Of course. But first help me find the treasure at the bottom of this well. We can divide it.” So Keshav went into the well. But each time Yash, hauled up the bucket Keshav had filled, he said, “Oh ! No treasure here. Try again.” Keshav soon realized he was being used as free labour to clean the well. So he gave a loud shout, “Here is the treasure! Watch out it’s heavy !” Yash was amazed that there actually was treasure in the well. As soon as he pulled up the bucket he threw away the rope so that Keshav could not come up. But, what did he find in the bucket ? Keshav covered in mud ! They began fighting again. Soon it got too dark to continue and they left for their homes.

But Keshav did not give up easily. He arrived at Yash’s house a few days later. Yash spotted him and told his wife, “I will pretend to be dead. Keshav will have to give up.” But when Keshav heard Yash’s wife wailing, he rushed out to gather the villagers. “My friend has died. Let’s take his body for cremation.” Yash’s wife got scared, “Go away. I shall arrange for cremation myself !” But the villagers thought she was too grief stricken. Once they reached the cremation ground, Keshav told the villagers, “It is getting dark. I shall watch over him during the night.” When the villagers had left, Keshav said to Yash, “Stop pretending. Give me my money !” Now, a gang of thieves came upon them and seeing one figure seated on the funeral pyre and another standing next to him talking, they assumed them to be ghosts and dropped their bag of stolen goods and left at top speed. The two, saw the bag full of gold and silver ornaments and divided it between themselves. Keshav made sure he got an extra gold coin and the account was settled at last!

1. What made the two young men decide to visit the fair ?
(A) They thought they could get jobs and support themselves
(B) They wanted to trade their goods at the fair and earn some money
(C) To sell the produce they had grown for a handsome profit
(D) Being unemployed they thought they could entertain people at the fair
(E) Not clearly mentioned in the passage
Ans : (B)

2. What were Keshav and Yash quarrelling about ?
(A) The cost of wool
(B) The interest on the loan Yash had taken
(C) Dividing the thieves’ treasure equally
(D) The money Yash owed Keshav
(E) The wages for digging the well
Ans : (D)

3. Why were the two men happy despite not going to the fair ?
(A) They had managed to buy whatever they needed on the way
(B) They had got a good deal in exchange for a rupee
(C) They had become fast friends and had made a lot of money in the bargain
(D) Each thought he had got the better deal and had swindled the other
(E) None of the above
Ans : (D)

4. Why did the villagers gather at Yash’s house ?
(A) Yash’s wife was very upset seeing Keshav and her husband arguing
(B) To help Yash’s wife carry Yash’s body home as night had fallen
(C) To give Yash’s wife the news of her husband’s death
(D) They wanted to keep watch over Yash’s wife during the night
(E) None of the above
Ans : (E)

5. Why did Yash request Keshav to go down into the well ?
(A) He knew Keshav was smart and would clean it thoroughly
(B) He was in search of treasure that he had buried
(C) To trick Keshav into cleaning it
(D) His wife had refused to help him
(E) To make Keshav earn the extra gold coin
Ans : (C)

6. Which of the following cannot be said about the two young men ?
(a) They were lazy and made their wives work.
(b) They were a match for each other in shrewdness.
(c) They were dishonest and tried to swindle each other.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (a) and (c)
(C) Only (b) and (c)
(D) All (a), (b) and (c)
(E) None of the above
Ans : (A)

7. Why did Keshav get an extra gold coin from the thieves’ treasure ?
(A) As payment for digging the well
(B) It was the amount Yash owed Keshav for protecting him from the thieves
(C) As repayment of the rupee that Yash owed him
(D) It was his idea to spend the night at the cremation ground
(E) He had proved to be cleverer than Yash
Ans : (C)

8. What was Keshav’s reaction to Yash’s presumed ‘death’ ?
(A) He immediately sent for the villagers to comfort Yash’s wife
(B) He was very upset because he realized that he would never recover his money
(C) He paid for all Yash’s funeral arrangements
(D) He could not be consoled and kept a watch over Yash’s body all night
(E) He knew Yash was pretending and decided to trick him too
Ans : (E)

9. What frightened the thieves ?
(A) The sight of what they thought were the spirits of the dead
(B) The realization that the villagers would soon return
(C) Someone had discovered their hiding place
(D) Their loot had been stolen by other thieves
(E) The villagers had lit a funeral pyre for them
Ans : (A)

10. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage ?
(A) Keshav was persevering by nature
(B) There was no treasure buried in Yash’s well
(C) Keshav guarded Yash’s body because he knew thieves lived there
(D) Yash’s wife supported her husband in his crooked dealings
(E) Neither Keshav nor Yash could be trusted to keep his word
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage ?

11. Discover
(A) Invent
(B) Explore
(C) Locate
(D) Realize
(E) Research
Ans : (D)

12. Struck
(A) Reached
(B) Impacted
(C) Slapped
(D) Attacked
(E) Occurred
Ans : (A)

13. Top
(A) Height
(B) Lid
(C) Finest
(D) Upper
(E) Maximum
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage ?

14. Dark
(A) Bright
(B) Cheerful
(C) Shadow
(D) Fair
(E) Shining
Ans : (A)

15. Free
(A) Occupied
(B) Paid
(C) Captured
(D) Busy
(E) Dependent
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 16–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the letter of the part with error as your answer. If there is no error, mark (E).

16. In order to (A) / attract tourists many (B) / hotels have been offered (C) / attractive deals and discounts. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

17. The Board is likely (A) / to take its time (B) / to examine the facts (C) / before giving their decision. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

18. How can we open (A) / these branches on time (B) / if we have not (C) / yet obtained the licences ? (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

19. One of the disadvantage (A) / of fixed deposit schemes (B) / is that banks offer (C) / low rates of interest. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

20. According to experts, it is (A) / necessarily for you to save (B) / and invest at least twenty-five (C) / percent of your monthly income. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

21. The manager has not (A) / yet replied to the (B) / customer letter asking (C) / about her loan application. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

22. While the formation of RBI (A) / was approved in March, 1934 (B) / it was inaugurated (C) / only in April 1, 1935. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

23. The Insurance Regulatory Development Authority has (A) / asked all insurance (B) / companies submitting their (C) / balance sheets by June. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

24. Arun’s father has been ill (A) / since last year and Arun (B) / has spend his entire (C) / savings on his treatment. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

25. There are a large number (A) / of Chinese workers which (B) / are employed by (C) / software companies in India. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

26. There are few (A) differents (B) between (C) these two marketing proposals. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

27. Most (A) banks have been hiring (B) staff for their corporate (C) banking divisions. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

28. The interest rate for postal deposits is fixed (A) by the government and usually (B) remains (C) stable. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

29. Companies (A) will benefit (B) if the Finance Ministry decides to lesser (C) taxes in this budget. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

30. Compare (A) to private (B) banks, we have a larger (C) network (D) of branches in North India. All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 31–40) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

A poor man was once travelling through the desert. Feeling thirsty and tired, he began to …(31)… for water. At last finding a stream, he …(32)… to his knees and drank the water which …(33)… very sweet. He filled up his bottle …(34)… continued on. After several days journey, he …(35)… the palace and got an opportunity to …(36)… the King. As a mark of …(37)… he presented the King with the bottle …(38)… water. The King tasted the water, and …(39)… rewarded the man. All the courtiers …(40)… to taste the water but the King refused. When the man had left overjoyed, the king explained why he had acted so strangely. “After such a long journey, the water was foul tasting. I could not risk anyone showing, his disgust for a gift which was so sincerely given! For this reason alone I reserved the tasting of the water for myself.”

31. (A) desire
(B) pursue
(C) need
(D) obtain
(E) search
Ans : (E)

32. (A) fell
(B) drop
(C) jumped
(D) leaped
(E) sat
Ans : (D)

33. (A) looked
(B) tasted
(C) flavour
(D) became
(E) sample
Ans : (B)

34. (A) before
(B) soon
(C) and
(D) that
(E) however
Ans : (C)

35. (A) came
(B) reached
(C) built
(D) seen
(E) arrived
Ans : (B)

36. (A) meet
(B) receive
(C) homage
(D) acquaint
(E) welcome
Ans : (A)

37. (A) rebuke
(B) regards
(C) regret
(D) respect
(E) reverend
Ans : (D)

38. (A) had
(B) of
(C) filled
(D) contained
(E) full
Ans : (B)

39. (A) foolishly
(B) hasty
(C) similarly
(D) selfishly
(E) generously
Ans : (E)

40. (A) began
(B) hoping
(C) begged
(D) anxious
(E) wish
Ans : (C)